Assistant Director - Industries and Commerce Department Answer Key- 45/2017 (2/15) - Paper 118

Assistant director
Note: If you find mistakes, comment below
Name of post : Assistant Director
Department : Industries and Commerce
Category No : 002/2015
Question Paper : 045/2017



  1. When the two principal stresses are equal and like, the resultant stress on any plane is:
    • One-half of principal stress
    • Equal to principal stress
    • One-third of principal stress
    • Zero

  2. A simply supported beam A of length l, breadth b and depth d carries a central point load W. Another beam B has same length and depth, but its breadth is doubled with the same loading. The deflection of beam B will be________ as compared to that of beam A.
    • One-fourth
    • Double
    • Four times
    • One-half

  3. A metal pipe of 2m diameter contains a fluid having a pressure of 10 MPa. If the permissible tensile stress in the metal is 200 MPa, then the thickness of the metal required for making the pipe would be:
    • 50 mm
    • 100 mm
    • 20 mm
    • 2.5 mm

  4. A circular shaft AB of length L is held at two ends without rotation. A twisting moment T is applied at C, a distance L/3 from left support A. The twisting moment in the portion AC will be:
    • T
    • T/3
    • T/2
    • 2T/3

  5. Two soil samples A and B have porosities 40% and 60% respectively. What is the ratio of void ratio eA : eB?
    • 2:3
    • 3:2
    • 4:9
    • 9:4

  6. A normally consolidated clay layer settled by 20 mm when the effective stress was increased from 25 to 50 kN/m2. What will be the settlement when the effective stress is increased from 50 to 100 kN/m2?
    • 10 mm
    • 20 mm
    • 40 mm
    • 80 mm

  7. Two footings, one circular and the other square are founded on the surface of purely cohesionless soil. The diameter of the circular footing is same as that of the side of the square footing. The ratio of their ultimate bearing capacities is:
    • 3/4
    • 4/3
    • 1.0
    • 1.3

  8. A first class brick should not absorb water more than_____ of its own dry weight after 24 hours immersion in cold water.
    • 10%
    • 15%
    • 20%
    • 25%

  9. The compressive strength of a good Portland cement and standard sand mortar after 3 days of curing should not be less than:
    • 70kg/cm2
    • 115kg/cm2
    • 175kg/cm2
    • 210kg/cm2

  10. In order to obtain required workability, the minimum quantity of water to be added to fine and coarse aggregates is determined by the relation: (Where, W/C= water-cement ratio, p = Quantity of cement by weight, y = Quantity of fine aggregate by weight, z = Quantity of coarse aggregate by weight)
    • W/C x p = 0.3p + 0.1y + 0.001z
    • W/C x p = 0.1p + 0.001y + 0.1z
    • W/C x p = 0.001p + 0.1y + 0.3z
    • W/C x p = 0.3p + 0.001y + 0.1z
    No answer

  11. Which law of thermodynamics distinguishes between reversible and irreversible physical processes?
    • Zeroth law
    • First law
    • Second law
    • Third law

  12. Which of the following is not true?
    • Gas laws are applicable to superheated steam
    • Gas laws are applicable to wet steam.
    • Triple point is the only state at which the solid, liquid and vapor phases coexist in equilibrium
    • Entropy of steam is zero at absolute temperature of 273 K
    No answer

  13. Which cycle is used for steam power plants?
    • Rankine cycle
    • Carnet cycle
    • Brayton cycle
    • Otto cycle

  14. Which law states that intensity of pressure at a point in static fluid is equal in all directions?
    • Hydrostatic law
    • Euler’s law
    • Pascal’s law
    • Avogadro law

  15. Bernoulli’s equation is applicable when it is assumed that
    • Fluid is incompressible
    • Flow is steady and irrotational
    • Fluid is no viscous (ideal)
    • All of these

  16. For which of the following, Pelton turbine is suitable?
    • Low discharge and low head
    • Medium discharge and medium head
    • High discharge and high head
    • Low discharge and high head

  17. Logarithmic decrement is the natural logarithm of the
    • Damping factor
    • Amplitude reduction factor
    • Whirling speed
    • Dynamic magnifier

  18. A body is subjected to transverse vibration. Then the stress induced in the body will be:
    • Tensile stress
    • Shear stress
    • Compressive stress
    • Hoop stress

  19. Basically forging involves which of the following operations?
    • Drawing
    • Upsetting
    • Squeezing
    • All of these

  20. The material removal rate in electrochemical machining is proportional to the
    • Current settings
    • Temperature of the electrolyte
    • Both of these
    • None of these

  21. An RLC series circuit with R=10Ω, L = 1H, C = 1F are connected across a 100V, variable frequency supply. Find the power factor and current at resonance
    • 1, 10A
    • 0, 10A
    • 1, 15A
    • 0, 15A

  22. What is R.M.S value of a triangular voltage waveform having a maximum magnitude of 10V?
    • 7.07V
    • 5V
    • 5.77V
    • 10V

  23. A Single-phase energy meter is connected in a circuit with 230 V, 50Hz and a load of 5A working for 6 Hrs. at unity power factor. The meter makes 2000 revolutions during that period. The meter constant is
    • 200 rev/kwhr
    • 300 rev/kwhr
    • 150 rev/kwhr
    • 275 rev/kwhr

  24. If the power in a 3-phase. 400 V, star-connected pure capacitive load is measured by using two watt meters, what will be its readings?
    • Both zeros
    • Equal but opposite
    • One wattmeter reads zero
    • both positive

  25. Out of the given generating station which will be the base load station?
    • Nuclear
    • Solar
    • Hydro
    • Thermal

  26. Highest transmission voltage in India is
    • 400 kV
    • 1200 kV
    • 600 kV
    • 765 kV

  27. If eddy current loss of a single phase transformer at 115 V, 50 Hz is 40 W. What is the eddy current loss corresponding to 230V, 50 Hz?
    • 160 W
    • 40 W
    • 80 W
    • 90 W

  28. The power input to a 3-phase induction motor is 100 kW. The stator bases total 1.5 kW. What is the mechanical power developed at a slip of 5.5%?
    • 95 kW
    • 60 kW
    • 98 kW
    • 93 kW

  29. Two - part tariff charges are for:
    • Units consumed
    • Units and Power factor
    • Units and power
    • Units and Maximum load demand

  30. Rating of fuse wire is expressed in:
    • Watts
    • Volts
    • Amps
    • Ohms

  31. Which of the following is an acceptor dopant?
    • Antimony
    • Arsenic
    • Germanium
    • Gallium

  32. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
    • The bridge rectifier has lower TUF than the center tapped full wave rectifier
    • The bridge rectifier has better load regulation than the center tapped full wave rectifier
    • The bridge rectifier a more preferred to the center tapped full wave rectifier when larger output voltage is required
    • The bridge rectifier has better ripple factor than the center tapped full wave rectifier

  33. Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of negative feedback in amplifiers?
    • negative feedback increases the sensitivity of the amplifier
    • negative feedback increases the lower cut-off frequency
    • negative feedback increases the output resistance of the amplifier
    • negative feedback increases the noise in amplifiers
    Question error

  34. Which of the following Boolean algebra is correct
    • A+AB=A+B
    • A+ A̅B=A+B
    • A(A̅+B)=A+B
    • A . A̅ = 1

  35. Which of the following flip flop is the best suited to be used as a latch?
    • SR flip flop
    • JR flip flop
    • T flip flop
    • D flip flop

  36. The sum of the binary numbers 1010 and 1111 is:
    • 10101
    • 11111
    • 11001
    • 1010

  37. The carrier of an amplitude-modulated wave of frequency 800 KHz is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves with modulation indices 0.1 and 0.3 respectively, the total modulation index of the resultant wave is:
    • 0.1
    • 0.5
    • 0.7
    • Cannot be calculated
    Question error

  38. The amplitude of the sideband of AM wave is:
    • independent of modulation index
    • independent of carrier amplitude
    • 1/2 x carrier amplitude x modulation index
    • Carrier amplitude x modulation index

  39. The minimum number of comparators required to build an 8-bit flash ADC is
    • 256
    • 255
    • 63
    • 8

  40. Which one of the following is correct for basic transistor amplifier configurations?
    • CC amplifier has high input impedance and high current gain
    • CB amplifier has high Input impedance and high current gain
    • CE configuration has low input Impedance and low current gain
    • The current gain of CB amplifier is higher than that of the CC amplifier

  41. The program which converts the high-level language to machine language is called
    • Assembler
    • Compiler
    • Linker
    • Loader

  42. Which of the following programming language was used for writing the popular operating system UNIX?
    • C++
    • Java
    • C
    • PASCAL

  43. Arithmetic operations are coded in:
    • Decision symbols
    • I/O symbols
    • Processing symbols
    • Terminal symbols

  44. A half byte is known as
    • bit
    • word
    • nibble
    • half byte

  45. Any method for controlling access to or use of memory is known as
    • Memory map
    • Memory protection
    • Memory management
    • Memory instruction

  46. Which of the following is a volatile memory?
    • RAM
    • ROM
    • DVD
    • CD-ROM

  47. What hardware was used by the first generation computer?
    • Transistor
    • Valves
    • ICs
    • VLSI

  48. A step by step procedure used to solve a problem in called:
    • system software
    • algorithm
    • application program
    • function

  49. The octal equivalent of 3DF is:
    • 3176
    • 1037
    • 1287
    • 1737

  50. ______ is a collection of software routines used as an interface between user and computer
    • Compiler
    • Interpreter
    • Operating system
    • Spooler

  51. A pipe of I.D. 10 cm is bifurcated into two pipes of I.D. 5cm each, If the average velocity of the water flowing through the main pipe is 10 m/s the average velocity of the water flowing through the bifurcated pipe is
    • 40 m/s
    • 20 m/s
    • 14.14 m/s
    • 10 m/s

  52. For ideal fluid flow the Reynolds number is:
    • Infinity
    • zero
    • one
    • 2100

  53. The velocity profile for Bingham plastic fluid flowing under laminar conditions in a pipe is
    • Parabolic
    • Flat
    • Flat near the wall and parabolic in the middle
    • Parabolic near the wall and flat in the middle

  54. The hydraulic diameter of annulus of inner and outer radii Ri and Ro respectively
    • 4(Ro-Ri)
    • √(Ro Ri)
    • 2(Ro-Ri)
    • Ro+Ri

  55. A particle A of diameter 10 microns settles in an oil of specific gravity 0.9 and viscosity 10 poise under Stokes law. A particle B with diameter 20 microns settling in the same oil will have a settling velocity
    • Same as that of A
    • One-fourth as that of A
    • Twice as that of A
    • Four times as that of A

  56. In Tyler series the ratio of the aperture size of a screen to that of the next smaller size is
    • 1/√2
    • √2
    • 2
    • 1.5

  57. A sand mixture was screened through a standard 10 mesh screen. The mass fraction of the oversize material in feed overflow and underflow were found to be 0.45, 0.6 and 0.2 respectively. The effectiveness of the screen based on oversize is:
    • 0.9
    • 0.68
    • 0.83
    • 0.62

  58. Dissolved organic pollutants in water are generally removed by
    • Biological treatment
    • Evaporation
    • Ion exchange
    • Membrane separation

  59. Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) of a wastewater sample indicate.
    • Dissolved oxygen content
    • Amount of oxygen needed for saturation
    • Amount of organic matter
    • Amount of readily oxidizable organic part

  60. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by:
    • Boiling
    • Settling
    • Biological treatment
    • Ion exchange

  61. In surface method of irrigation water is applied directly from a:
    • Pipe
    • Channel
    • Drip head
    • Sprinkler

  62. Tractors are used for
    • earth moving purposes
    • land clearing uses
    • tillage purposes
    • all of these purposes

  63. In air cooled engines fins are the components of:
    • Cooling system
    • Ignition system
    • Fuel system
    • None of these

  64. Indented cylinder separator works on the principle of:
    • moisture of grain
    • colour of grains
    • size of grains
    • none of these

  65. Flywheel in a Tractor works as:
    • To start the engine
    • As energy reservoir
    • None of these
    • Serves as smooth running

  66. Traditionally harvesting of paddy crop was commonly performed with the use of
    • Sickle
    • Tractor
    • Power tillers
    • Combines

  67. A heat engine is defined as a device which converts:
    • one form of energy into useful work
    • heat energy into useful work
    • both "one form of energy into useful work" and "heat energy into useful work"
    • None of these

  68. Average speed of the drum of a foot operated paddy thresher for maximum efficiency is:
    • 100 rpm
    • 4000 rpm
    • 1000 rpm
    • 400 rpm

  69. In paddy, losses due to shredding and shattering of grains in the field can be considerably reduced when it is harvested between:
    • 10 to 15% moisture content
    • 23 to 25% moisture content
    • 30 to 33% moisture content
    • None of these

  70. In thin layer drying the depth of grains is limited to:
    • 50 cm
    • 100 cm
    • 60 cm
    • 20 cm

  71. The three essential skills or competences required for a manager according to Robert L Katz are:
    • Technical Skills, human Skills and Communication Skills
    • Human Skills, Communication Skills and Leadership Skills
    • Conceptual Skills, Human Skills and Technical Skills
    • None of these

  72. Which set of attributes is a good description of a traditional organization?
    • Stable, command-oriented and hierarchical
    • Dynamic, flexible and team oriented.
    • Rule oriented, skills focused and diverse
    • None of these

  73. Of the following the set of tools not used for conflict resolution is:
    • Avoidance, smoothing and compromise
    • Problem-solving, super ordinate goals and altering the human variable
    • Authoritative command, expansion of resources and altering the structural variables
    • None of these

  74. Forecasting is
    • The basis for control
    • The basis for planning
    • Based on plan for a future period
    • None of these

  75. An example for attribute based qualify control chart is:
    • Mean Chart
    • C Chart
    • Range chart
    • None of these

  76. The statement which is not a correct difference between PERT and CPM is
    • PERT is event oriented, CPM is activity oriented
    • PERT is probabilistic, CPM is deterministic
    • PERT emphasis is on project time, CPM’s is on time and cost
    • PERT is repetitive, CPM is not repetitive

  77. The tools generally used in capacity planning decisions are
    • Waiting line models, simulation and decision tree
    • EOQ models. Layout models and Gantt chart
    • Waiting line models, variance analysis and Gantt chart
    • None of these

  78. The right statement about SWOT analysis is:
    • SWOT is an analysis of the external factors of a firm
    • SWOT is an internal environment analysis tool
    • SWOT is an analysis internal and external factors of an organization
    • None of these

  79. Cash flow statement is a summary of the:
    • Cash receipts and payments of an organization for a given period
    • Cash receipts and funds from operations for a given period
    • Cash receipts and all changes in working capital fora given period
    • None of these

  80. Break even analysis is a direct tool for assessing:
    • Capacity planning of a plant
    • Service quality of a firm
    • Tensile strength of a material
    • Viability of a firm

  81. The Editor of Rasikaranjini
    • Kodungallur Kunjikkuttan Thampuran
    • Ulloor. S. Parameswara Ayyar
    • Mundasseri
    • G. Subrahmannia Ayyar

  82. Tharaharam is a work of:
    • Pandit Karuppan
    • Ayyankali
    • Ulloor
    • M. Leelavathy

  83. Who known in the pen name Keralan?
    • Pandit Karuppan
    • Swedeshabhimani Ramakrishna Pillai
    • K Damodaran
    • Kesari Balakrishna pillai

  84. Arjuna Nritham (Dance of Arjuna) was popular in:
    • Kottayam
    • ldukki
    • Palakkd
    • Kannur

  85. Who was known as Kristhava Kalidasan?
    • Kandathil Varghese Mappila
    • M.V. Paulose
    • Arnose Pathiri
    • Kattakkayam Cheriyan Mappila

  86. Kavithilakan:
    • Anantha Theertham
    • Kodungallur Kunjikkuttan Thampuran
    • Pandit Karuppan
    • Changampuzha

  87. Article 371(i) a special provision is given to the state of:
    • Andhra Pradesh
    • Manipur
    • Goa
    • Nagaland

  88. Lakkadavala Committee is related to:
    • Demography
    • Poverty Line
    • Share Market
    • Consumerism

  89. Which one of the following councils was a part of the drafting of Indian Constitution?
    • Accounts Committee
    • Interim council
    • Civil right council
    • Committee on Supreme Court

  90. When did Calicut declared the first Litter-Free city in India?
    • 12th August 2005
    • 12th August 2000
    • 1st November 2005
    • 5th September 2008

  91. Which fruit is known as Food of the Gods?
    • Banana
    • Pine Apple
    • Apple
    • Mango

  92. The first Cinema Museum in India:
    • Bombay
    • Delhi
    • Thiruvananthapuram
    • Kolkatta

  93. Which daily of Kerala banned for the first time on political Grounds?
    • Swadeshabhimani
    • Mathribhumi
    • Deepika
    • Sandishtavadi

  94. The Ayalkoottam project firstly introduced in Kerala:
    • Alappuzha
    • Kallyasseri
    • Mananthavadi
    • Pulamanthole

  95. Tamilnadu introduced The Right to Information Act:
    • 1996
    • 2005
    • 2008
    • 2000
    Question error

  96. Lokamanyan was published in:
    • 1921
    • 1960
    • 1920
    • 1848

  97. Thykkad Ayya Vaikundar wrote the Book:
    • Smriti Lahari
    • Vasantha Malika
    • Hanuman
    • Ravanan
    Question error

  98. Kadathanattu Madhavi Amma was the Editor of:
    • Yukthivadi
    • Samadarshj
    • Prabhatham
    • Murali

  99. Nelson Mandela Award 2016:
    • Tabasum Adnan
    • Malala Yousuf Shai
    • Kailesh Tripadi
    • James Cameroon

  100. The new name of Gudgaon of Haryana:
    • Mevat
    • Naha
    • Gurugram
    • Banshi

%

4 comments

  1. Is result or short list made for this post?

    ReplyDelete

  2. Be that as it may, subsidizing from the household speculators isn't sufficient when contrasted with the money related needs of the Industry. EDR FITTINGS ADVISING BRANCH

    ReplyDelete