Radiographer Grade II- Health Services 189/2016 Answer Key 72/2017

X-ray machine

Post : Radiographer Gr.II
Department : Health Services
Category Code : 189/16
Qualifications: B.Sc.(MRT) (Medical Radiological Technology) or equivalent, Higher Secondary with Physics, Chemistry, Biology + Diploma in Radiological Technology
Question Paper Code : 72/2017
Date of Test : 22-06-2017



  1. Watson and Crick proposed DNA model in the year :
    • 1970
    • 1953
    • 1983
    • 1965

  2. Which statement of cell cycle is not true?
    • It consists of mitosis and interphase
    • The cell’s DNA replicates during G1
    • A cell can remain in G1 for weeks or even longer
    • Most proteins are formed throughout all subphase of interphase

  3. The element with atomic number Z=115 will be placed in :
    • 7th period, I A group
    • 8th period, IV A group
    • 7th period, V A group
    • 6th period, V B group

  4. Half-life period of a radioactive element X is same as the mean lifetime of another element Y. Initially, they have same number of atoms. Then :
    • X will decay faster than Y
    • Y will decay faster than X
    • Y and X decay at the same rate after one half-life period
    • Y and X have same decay rate initially

  5. The difference between soft and hard X-rays is of :
    • Velocity
    • Intensity
    • Frequency
    • Polarization

  6. Which rays are not the portion of electromagnetic spectrum?
    • Alpha-rays
    • X-rays
    • Microwaves
    • Radiowaves

  7. Whose experiments mark the beginning of the field of communication using electromagnetic waves?
    • J.C. Bose
    • Maxwell
    • Marconi
    • Hertz

  8. The correct sequence of the increasing wavelength of the given radiation sources is :
    • Radioactive sources, X-ray tube, crystal oscillator, sodium vapour lamp
    • Radioactive sources, X-ray tube, sodium vapour lamp, crystal oscillator
    • X-ray tube, radioactive sources, crystal oscillator, sodium vapour lamp
    • X-ray tube, crystal oscillator, radioactive sources, sodium vapour lamp

  9. What is the range of frequency for ultrasonic wave?
    • 1 kHz
    • 5 kHz
    • 50 kHz
    • 100 kHz

  10. Which is the commonest cancer among females?
    • Uterus
    • Tongue
    • Lung
    • Breast

  11. Cathode rays are made to pass between the poles of a magnet perpendicular to axis, the effect of the magnet is :
    • to increase the velocity of rays
    • to deflect them towards the north pole
    • to deflect them towards the south pole
    • to deflect them upwards above the plain of paper

  12. Photocell is a device to :
    • store photons
    • measure light intensity
    • convert photon energy into mechanical energy
    • store electrical energy for replacing storage batteries

  13. If the X-ray tube is working at 20 kV then the minimum wavelength of X-rays will be :
    • 0.62 A
    • 0.93 A
    • 0.47 A
    • 0.31 A

  14. Isotopes are atoms having :
    • same number of protons, but different number of neutrons
    • same number of neutrons, but different number of protons
    • same number of neutrons and protons
    • none of these

  15. If an electron jumps from 1st orbit to 3rd orbit, then it will :
    • Absorb energy
    • Release energy
    • Have no difference in energy
    • It cannot jump from 1st orbit to 3rd orbit

  16. Gamma rays are deflected :
    • In an electric field but not by a magnetic field
    • A magnetic field but not by an electric field
    • Both electric and magnetic field
    • Neither electric nor magnetic field

  17. Radioactivity is :
    • Irreversible process
    • Self-disintegration process
    • Spontaneous
    • All of these

  18. Half life of radioactive element depends upon :
    • Temperature
    • Pressure
    • Both of these
    • None of these

  19. Curie is a unit of :
    • Energy of gamma rays
    • Half life
    • Radioactivity
    • Intensity of gamma rays

  20. Boron rods in a nuclear reactor is used to :
    • Absorb excess neutrons
    • Absorb alpha particles
    • Slow down the reaction
    • Speed up the reaction

  21. IMRT stands for :
    • Intra-Medullary Radiotherapy
    • Intensity Modulated Radiotherapy
    • Interstitial Modulated Radiotherapy
    • Intensity Maximized Radiotherapy

  22. Which is the commonest primary Brain tumour?
    • Medulloblastoma
    • Glioma
    • Neuroblastoma
    • Pituitary adenoma

  23. The length of one turn of DNA is :
    • 3.4 A
    • 34 A
    • 20 A
    • 3.04 A

  24. Stereotactic Radio-surgery is a form of :
    • Radiotherapy
    • Radioiodine therapy
    • Robotic Surgery
    • Cryo Surgery

  25. Which one of the following therapeutic modes is commonly employed in intra-operative radiotherapy?
    • Electron
    • Photons
    • X-rays
    • Gamma rays

  26. WHO Ladder is for the rational titration of :
    • Radiotherapy
    • Chemotherapy
    • Antidepressants
    • Oral analgesics

  27. The following are indications for post operative radiotherapy in a case of carcinoma endometrium except :
    • Myometrial invasion of more than half thickness
    • Positive lymph nodes
    • Endocervical involvement
    • Tumor positive for estrogen receptors

  28. The technique employed in radiotherapy to counteract the effect of tumor motion due to breathing is known as :
    • Arc technique
    • Modulation
    • Gating
    • Shunting

  29. Which one of the following radioisotope is not used as permanent implant?
    • Iodine - 125
    • Palladium - 103
    • Gold - 198
    • Caesium - 137

  30. The most definitive method of diagnosing pulmonary embolism is :
    • EKG
    • Radioisotope perfusion pulmonary scintigraphy
    • Pulmonary arteriography
    • Venography

  31. Which of the following causes rib-notching on the chest radiograph?
    • Bidirectional Glem shunt
    • Modified Blalock - Taussing shunt
    • IVC occlusion
    • Coarctation of Aorta

  32. For routine chest radiography you would expect to get the best contrast characteristics by using :
    • 35 kV
    • 65 kV
    • 95 kV
    • 125 kV

  33. Which one of the following tumors shows calcification of CT Scan more commonly?
    • Ependymoma
    • Medulloblastoma
    • Meningioma
    • CNS lymphoma

  34. Which of the following ultrasound marker is associated with greatest increased risk for Trisomy 21 in fetus?
    • Echogenic foci in heart
    • Hyperechogenic bowel
    • Choroid plexus cysts
    • Nuchal edema

  35. The gold standard for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is :
    • Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry
    • Single energy X-ray absorptiometry
    • Ultrasound
    • Quantitative computed tomography

  36. In order to check for possible leakage of radioactive material from a cobalt camera the _________ is used.
    • TLD
    • Wipe test
    • G-M counter
    • DRD

  37. The optimal film speed for intra-oral radiography is :
    • C speed
    • D speed
    • E speed
    • F speed

  38. What does a “cell survival curve” describe?
    • The relationship between the radiation dose and the number of cells that have gone through one mitosis after irradiation.
    • The relationship between the radiation dose and the proportion of cells that remain clonogenic.
    • The relationship between the radiation dose and the number of cells that have not suffered the loss of a specific function.
    • The relationship between the radiation dose and the proportion of cells that can produce DNA.

  39. Which of the following statements is false?
    • Cells are more sensitive to X-rays in the presence of oxygen than in its absence (i.e. under hypoxia).
    • By “oxygen enhancement ratio” (OER) is meant the ratio of hypoxic to aerated doses needed to achieve the same biological effect.
    • For sparsely ionizing radiation, the OER is about 3 at high doses and about 2 at low doses (i.e. at doses of the order of the daily dose per fraction in radiotherapy).
    • The OER does not vary with the phase of the cell cycle.

  40. The effective dose for a multiple-slice chest CT-scan is :
    • 1 mSv.
    • 2 mSv.
    • 4 mSv.
    • 8 mSv.

  41. Which radiologic test is used to diagnose gallstones?
    • Barium enema
    • Intravenous pyelogram
    • Cholangiography
    • Stereoscopy

  42. Spalding’s sign occurs after :
    • Birth of live foetus
    • Death of foetus in uterus
    • Rigormortis of infant
    • Cadaveric spasm

  43. Which one of the following congenital malformations of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound?
    • Anencephaly
    • Inencephaly
    • Microcephaly
    • Holoprosencephaly

  44. Brown tumours are seen in :
    • Hyperparathyroidism
    • Pigmented villonodular synovitis
    • Osteomalacia
    • Neurofibromatosis

  45. Which of the following malignant tumours is radioresistant?
    • Ewing’s sarcoma
    • Retinoblastoma
    • Osteosarcoma
    • Neuroblastoma

  46. The bulge at the upper end of the stomach is called the :
    • Fundus
    • Greater curvature
    • Pylorus
    • Rugae

  47. High-velocity electrons (e-) that completely avoid the orbital electrons as they pass through a tungsten atom, yet come close enough to the nucleus of the atom to come under the influence of its positively charged electric field (P+), will produce what type of X-rays?
    • Characteristic X-rays
    • Compton X-rays
    • Bremsstrahlung X-rays
    • Thompson X-rays

  48. What is the relationship of LET and biologic damage?
    • They increase in direct proportion.
    • They are inversely proportional.
    • There is no relationship.
    • There is a nonlinear nonthreshold relationship.

  49. A young male is brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT brain showed no midline shift. Basal cistern was compressed with multiple small haemorrhages. What is the likely diagnosis?
    • Cerebralcontusion
    • Cerebral laceration
    • Multipleinfarcts
    • Diffuse axonal injuries

  50. The ideal timing of radiotherapy for Wilms Tumour after surgery is :
    • Within 10 days
    • Within 2 weeks
    • Within 3 weeks
    • Anytime after surgery

  51. Half-life of Technetium 99 is :
    • 2 hours
    • 6 hours
    • 12 hours
    • 24 hours

  52. Radiation damage is divided into lethal damage, sublethal damage and potentially lethal damage (PLD). Which of the following statements is true?
    • PLD will cause cell death under ordinary circumstances.
    • PLD cannot be repaired under ordinary circumstances.
    • The variation of postirradiation conditions cannot enhance PLD repair.
    • PLD repair is less likely to occur when mitosis is delayed.

  53. Which of the following statements is false?
    • Radiation damage can cause a cell to either die or continue being viable but mutated.
    • The two events above are very different when it comes to the dose dependence of their probability to occur and also when it comes to their impact on the organism to which the cell belongs.
    • Cell killing by radiation is said to be a “deterministic effect”.
    • Cell mutating by radiation is said to be a “nonstochastic effect”.

  54. The average effective dose from medical radiation is about :
    • The same as the dose from natural background radiation.
    • The same as the dose from natural background radiation excluding radon.
    • Half of the total effective dose.
    • One third of the total effective dose.

  55. In the percent-labeled mitoses technique, the time interval before any mitotic cells appear gives the duration of :
    • The S phase
    • The G1 phase
    • The G2 phase
    • The M phase

  56. Which of the following statements is false?
    • By “cataract” is denoted any detectable change in the normally transparent lens of the eye.
    • Cataracts can be caused by irradiation of the lens.
    • Cell division in the lens continues throughout life.
    • The lens has the same mechanisms for cell removal as other normal tissues.

  57. Typical industrial radiography pocket dosimeters have a full scale reading of :
    • 50 milliroentgens
    • 100 milliroentgens
    • 200 milliroentgens
    • 400milliroentgens

  58. Consider the following statements about electromagnetic radiations; All of them
    (i) have energy
    (ii) exert pressure on an object
    (iii) have the same momentum. Of these statements :
    • (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
    • (i) and (ii) are correct
    • (ii) and (iii) are correct
    • (i) and (iii) are correct

  59. From which embryonic structure does vertebral column develop?
    • Notocord
    • Nerve cord
    • Coelom
    • Atrium

  60. The energy of X-ray photon is 2200 eV. It’s frequency would be :
    • 5.3×1016 Hz
    • 5.3×1017 Hz
    • 5.3×1018 Hz
    • 5.3×1015 Hz

  61. The term “metaplasia” refers to :
    • Differentiated cell is able to become transformed into a differentiated cell of another type
    • Cell becomes dedifferentiated
    • Cell grows abnormally fast
    • A precancerous condition

  62. Clouds are contained in a layer from the earth’s surface, which is called :
    • Troposphere
    • Stratosphere
    • Mesosphere
    • Ionosphere

  63. Sodium lamps are used in foggy conditions because :
    • Yellow light is scattered less by the fog particles
    • Yellow light is scattered more by the fog particles
    • Yellow light is unaffected during passage through the fog
    • Wavelength of yellow light is the mean of the visible part of the spectrum

  64. The term ‘genetics’ was coinded by :
    • Mendel
    • Bateson
    • Punett
    • Morgan

  65. A gene, which affects the character of another gene, not located on similar locus of the homologous chromosome is called :
    • Duplicate gene
    • Epistatic gene
    • Complimentary gene
    • Supplementary gene

  66. In fluorescence, there is :
    • Increase in wavelength of emitted radiation
    • Decrease in wavelength of emitted radiation
    • No change in wavelength of emitted radiation
    • Both increase and decrease in wavelength of emitted radiation

  67. What is the treatment of choice for stage III Ca Cervix?
    • Chemotherapy
    • Radiotherapy
    • Chemoradiotherapy
    • Surgery

  68. What is the surgery of choice for a patient with Ca Breast T2 N0 M0?
    • Modified Radical Mastectomy
    • MRM+Axillary dissection
    • Wide local excision
    • WLE+Axillary dissection

  69. Which of the following cannot be emitted by radioactive substances during their decay?
    • Electron
    • Helium nucleus
    • Proton
    • Neutrino

  70. The functional unit of a gene which specifies synthesis of one polypeptide is a :
    • Recon
    • Codon
    • Cloe
    • Cistron

  71. Only maternal immunoglobulin normally transported through placenta is :
    • IgA
    • IgD
    • IgM
    • IgG

  72. What is the screening method for medullary carcinoma of thyroid?
    • Serum calcitonin
    • Serum calcium
    • Serum ALP
    • Serum acid phosphatase

  73. Stability of the ankle joints is maintained by all except :
    • Collateral ligaments
    • Cruciate ligaments
    • Tendons of muscles attached
    • Close apposition of articular surfaces of bones

  74. Process of heat transfer that involves continual emission of infrared waves from surface of bodies and transmission of these waves without aid of medium is known as :
    • Conduction
    • Convection
    • Radiation
    • None of these

  75. Attenuation coefficient of bone is 600 m−1 for X-rays of energy 20 keV and intensity of beam of X-rays is 20 Wm−2, then intensity of beam after passing through a bone of 4 mm is :
    • 3 Wm−2
    • 2.5 Wm−2
    • 2.0 Wm−2
    • 1.8 Wm−2

  76. Post cricoid carcinoma of the oesophagus are best treated by :
    • Radiotherapy
    • Total oesophagectomy
    • Pharyngolaryngectomy with gastric transposition
    • Intubation through growth

  77. Which of the following tests will provide the best evaluation of the patient with colorectalcancer?
    • CA 19 - 9
    • CA 125
    • CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen)
    • AFP (alpha-foetoprotein)

  78. Post-operative radiotherapy in a patient operated for Ca-endometrium is indicated in all of the following except :
    • Deep myometrial invasion
    • Pelvic lymph node involvement
    • Enlarged uterine cavity
    • Poor tumour differentiation

  79. ‘Egg-on-side’ appearance on X-ray chest is seen in :
    • Tetralogy of Fallot
    • Uncorrected TGA
    • Tricuspid atresia
    • Ebstein’s anomaly

  80. Which of the following is false regarding intraocular retinoblastoma?
    • 94% cases are sporadic
    • Individuals with sporadic retinoblastoma do not pass their genes to their children
    • Reese-Ellsworth classification is used for predicting visual prognosis following radiotherapy
    • Tumour calcification can be detected by an ultrasound scan

  81. The 2020 Olympics will be held in :
    • Tokyo
    • London
    • Peru
    • Mexico

  82. The U.S. President Donald Trump was the Presidential nominee of which party?
    • Socialist Party
    • Republican Party
    • Democratic Party
    • Libertarian Party

  83. International Literacy Day is on :
    • 4th September
    • 5th June
    • 8th June
    • 8th September

  84. Founder of Samathwa Samajam in Kerala :
    • Ayya Vaikunda Swamikal
    • Dr. Palpu
    • Sahodaran Ayyappan
    • Ayyankali

  85. Karat Govindan Kutty Menon was the real name of __________.
    • Chattampi Swami
    • Ayya Vaikundar
    • Brahmananda Sivayogi
    • Thycaud Ayya

  86. ‘Ente Jeevitha Samarankal’ was the autobiography of :
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Mannathu Padmanabhan
    • Pandit Karuppan
    • V.T. Bhattathirippadu

  87. Who has been known as the Father of Kerala Renaissance?
    • K. Kelappan
    • Kumaranasan
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Vagbhadananda

  88. Which River is also known as Indus?
    • Ganga
    • Brahmaputra
    • Kaveri
    • Sindhu

  89. The first ecotourism in India :
    • Goa
    • Thenmala
    • Wayanadu
    • Mysore

  90. The father of the Modern Travancore :
    • Marthanda Varma
    • Dharmaraja
    • Pazhassi Raja
    • Visakham Tirunal

  91. Who wrote the book “Indian War of Independence”?
    • M.N. Roy
    • V.D. Savarkar
    • Thara Chand
    • B.R. Nanda

  92. The progress in increase of Fish production was called :
    • White Revolution
    • Yellow Revolution
    • Green Revolution
    • Blue Revolution

  93. The first Five Year Plan in India was from :
    • 1947 - 1952
    • 1949 - 1954
    • 1951 - 1956
    • 1952 - 1957

  94. India earns maximum foreign exchange by the export of :
    • Iron
    • Tea
    • Textiles
    • Handloom

  95. Which Maharaja of Travancore issued the Temple entry proclamation?
    • Sree Chithira Thirunal Balarama Varma
    • Setu Lakshmi Bai
    • Ayilyam Tirunal
    • Swathi Tirunal

  96. Andy Murray is a famous __________ player.
    • Hockey
    • Football
    • Chess
    • Tennis

  97. Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of Partition of Bengal (1905)?
    • Lord Curzon
    • Lord Mayo
    • Lord Wellesley
    • Lord Lytton

  98. Who was the First Secretary of SNDP?
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Chattampi Swamikal
    • Ayyankali
    • Kumaranasan

  99. Quit India Movement was started on :
    • 1930
    • 1938
    • 1942
    • 1946

  100. Who was the founder of Ramakrishna Mission?
    • Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsar
    • Dayananda Saraswathi
    • Swami Vivekananda
    • Raja Rammohan Roy

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