Lecturer In Mechanical Engineering Technical Education 226/2015 Answer Key

mechanical

Post : Lecturer In Mechanical Engineering, Special Recruitment for Scheduled Tribes
Department : Technical Education, Polytechnics
Category Code : 226/15
Question Paper Code : 69/2017/OL
Date of Test : 14-08-2017



  1. In the 'PERT' network, the project completion time is considered to follow
    • Normal Distribution
    • Beta Distribution
    • Linear Distribution
    • None of these

  2. What are the constituent of phosphor bronze?
    • Nickel, Copper, and Cobalt
    • Copper, Zinc, and Manganese
    • Copper, Tin, and Phosphorous
    • Aluminium, Copper, and Nickel

  3. Movement of block of atoms along certain crystallographic phases and directions termed as
    • Glide
    • Twinning
    • Slip
    • Jog

  4. The correct order of co-ordination number in SC, BCC, FCC and HCP unit cells is
    • 12, 12, 8, 6
    • 6, 8, 12, 12
    • 6, 6, 8, 12
    • 12, 8, 6, 12

  5. Addition of magnesium to cast Iron increases it's
    • Hardness
    • Creep strength
    • Corrosion resistance
    • Ductility and strength in tension

  6. During a tensile testing of a specimen using 'UTM', the parameters actually measured include
    • True stress and true strain
    • Poisson's ratio and Young's modulus
    • Engineering stress and engineering strain
    • Load and elongation

  7. A gauge block is checked for it's taperness using interferometer and the wavelength of the light is 0.4 μm. The number of fringes obtain are ten and five when the job is filted by 180°. The taperness is
    • 0.4 μm
    • 0.5 μm
    • 0.8 μm
    • 0.6 μm

  8. The most accurate surface roughness measuring instrument is
    • Perthometer
    • Light Section Microscope
    • Tomlinson Surface Tester
    • Profile projector

  9. Draft on pattern means
    • Locating aid
    • Allowance for machining
    • Facility for stripping
    • Compensation for shrinkage

  10. Match plate pattern is used in
    • green sand molding
    • bench molding
    • pit moulding
    • machine moulding

  11. Angle on which strength of the tool depends is
    • lip angle
    • rake angle
    • cutting angle
    • clearance angle

  12. Drilling can be termed as
    • Oblique cutting
    • Simple cutting
    • Orthogonal cutting
    • Uniform cutting

  13. In APT language, the cutter motion in incremental coordinate mode is addressed as
    • GO TO/...
    • GO/TO...
    • GO DL TA/...
    • GO FWD/...

  14. The critical depth of a rectangular channel of width 4 m and discharge of 12m3/sec is equal to
    • 0.972 mm
    • 300 mm
    • 30 mm
    • 674 mm

  15. Flow can be considered as incompressible flow
    • When Mach number less than 0.3
    • When Mach number in between 0.3 and 1
    • When Mach number greater than 1
    • When Mach number equal to 1

  16. In a doublet equipotential lines are
    • Circles tangent to y-axis
    • Circles tangent to x-axis
    • Concentric circles with centre on y-axis
    • Concentric circle with centre on x-axis

  17. What is the value of momentum correction factor for a turbulent flow in a pipe?
    • greater than 1
    • 1.02-1.05
    • 1.33
    • 2.00

  18. When maximum power is transmitted through the pipe, the relation between Total Head Supplied (H) and Head loss due to friction (HL) is
    • HL = H/2
    • HL = H/4
    • HL = H/3
    • HL= H

  19. What will be the number of buckets on the periphery of Pelton Wheel Runner, If 'D' is the diameter of wheel and 'd' is the diameter of the jet?
    • D//2d + 10
    • D/2d +12
    • D/2d+14
    • D/2d+15

  20. What is the maximum efficiency of a jet striking a single plate moving in the direction of jet is
    • 4/27
    • 6/27
    • 1/2
    • 8/27

  21. For Francis Turbine Thoma's critical cavitation factor σC can be related to specific speed as
    • 0.30 + 0.0036 (NS/100)2.73
    • 0.30 + 0.0036 (NS/100)
    • 0.0431 (NS/100)2
    • 0.0431 (NS/100)

  22. What is the least diameter of impeller in a centrifugal pump to commence the flow, where Hm is the manometric head N is the speed of impeller?
    • 97.7Hm/N
    • 97.7Hm/√N
    • 97.7√Hm/N
    • 97.7√N/Hm

  23. When an air vessel is fitted in a double acting Reciprocating pump, percentage work done per stroke saved against friction is
    • 84.8%
    • 39.2%
    • 46.4%
    • 76.4%

  24. Q - Discharge from supply tank to valve box; q - Discharge from valve box to delivery tank; H - Height of water in discharge tank above valve box; h - Height of water in supply tank above valve box. Then D' Aubusson's efficiency of a hydraulic Ram is
    • Qh/qH
    • Qq/Hh
    • qH/(Q-q)h
    • qH/Qh

  25. A hemispherical shape of diameter 1.5 m is provided in the bottom of a tank. If the depth of water above the horizontal floor of tank is 5 m. What is the magnitude of resultant force on hemisphere?
    • 78 KN
    • 74 KN
    • 76 KN
    • 75 KN

  26. If μ is the actual coefficient of friction in a belt moving in a grooved pulley, the groove angle being '2α', the virtual coefficient of friction will be
    • μ/cosα
    • μ/sinα
    • μ sinα
    • μ cosα

  27. Design of shafts made of brittle material is based on
    • Guest's theory
    • St. Venant's theory
    • Von-mises theory
    • Rankine's theory

  28. The highest stress that a material can with stand for a specified length of time with out excessive deformation is called
    • fatigue strength
    • endurance strength
    • creep strength
    • creep rupture strength

  29. When the addenda of pinion and wheel is such that the path of approach and path of recess are half of their maximum possible values then the length of path of contact is given by, r pitch circle radius of pinion R pitch circle radius of wheel Ï• pressure angle
    • (R+r) sinÏ• /2
    • (R+r) cosÏ• /2
    • (R+r) tanÏ• /2
    • (R+r)/2sinÏ•

  30. In a clock mechanism, the gear train used to connect minute hand to hour hand is
    • Epicyclic gear train
    • Reverted gear train
    • Compound gear train
    • Simple gear train

  31. The angle between the direction of follower motion and a normal to pitch curve is called
    • Pitch angle
    • Prime angle
    • Base angle
    • Pressure angle

  32. The ratio of height of Porter Governor (When length of arms and links are equal) to the height of Watt's Governor is m-mass of ball and M-mass of the load on sleeve.
    • m/(m+M)
    • M/(m+M)
    • (m+M)/m
    • (m+M)/M

  33. To restore stable operating condition in a hydrodynamic journal bearing, when it encounters higher magnitude loads
    • Oil viscosity is to be decreased
    • Oil viscosity is to be increased
    • Oil viscosity index is to be increased
    • Oil viscosity index is to be decreased

  34. A flywheel of moment of inertia 9-8 Kgm2 fluctuates by 30 rpm for a fluctuation of energy of 19360 J. The mean speed of the flywheel is in rpm
    • 600
    • 900
    • 968
    • 2940

  35. The number of elastic constants for a completely anisotropic elastic material are
    • 3
    • 4
    • 21
    • 25

  36. If 'P' is the Ratio of inside to outside diameter of a shaft, the ratio of torque carrying capacity of solid shaft to that of hollow shaft is given by
    • (1-P4)-1
    • 1-P4
    • P4
    • 1/P4

  37. Angle of helix in a closed coiled spring is
    • <100
    • >100
    • =100
    • None of these

  38. For the same maximum pressure and temperature of Otto, Diesel and dual combustion air standard cycles
    • The compression ratio will be same
    • Heat supplied to the cycles will be same
    • Air standard efficiency will have same value
    • Heat rejected by the engine will be same

  39. The mass of carbon per kg of flue gas is given by
    • 3/7 CO2 + 11/3 CO
    • 7/3 CO2 + 3/11 CO
    • 3/11 CO2 + 7/3 CO
    • 11/3 CO2 + 3/7 CO

  40. Critical thickness of insulation for sphere is given by [k- thermal conductivity, h - heat transfer coefficient]
    • k//h
    • k/(4Ï€h)
    • h/(2k)
    • 2k/h

  41. In a certain Heat exchanger, both fluids have identical mass flow rate - sp. heat product. The hot fluid enters at 76°C and leaves at 47°C and cold fluid enters at 26°C and leaves at 55°C. The effectiveness of heat exchanger is
    • 0.16
    • 0.58
    • 0.72
    • 1.0

  42. When ammonia is used as Refrigerant, the recommended material used for Refrigerant lines are
    • Copper
    • Aluminium
    • Steel
    • Brass

  43. A Spark plug gap should be
    • 0.2 to 0.8 mm
    • 0.3 to 0.7 mm
    • 0.4 to 0.9 mm
    • 0.6 to 1.0 mm
    Question error

  44. Which type of compressor mostly used in supercharger of internal combustion engines?
    • Roots blower
    • Axial flow compressor
    • Redial flow compressor
    • Reciprocating compressor

  45. Thermostatic expansion valves are set mostly for a super heat of
    • 5°C
    • 10°C
    • 15°C
    • 20°C

  46. In a Refrigeration system with multiple evaporators at different temperature with compound compression and flash intercooler, the suction vapour to the high pressure stage is
    • Wet state
    • Dry saturated
    • Super heated
    • Saturated liquid

  47. The supply air state of cooling coil with a bypass factor (BPF) lies at
    • Intersection of RSHF line with saturation curve
    • Intersection of GSHF line with saturation curve
    • Point dividing RSHF line in proportion of BPF and (1-BPF)
    • Intersection of RSHF line and GSHF line

  48. The degree of warmth or cold felt by a human body depends mainly on
    • DBT
    • Relative humidity
    • Air velocity
    • All of these

  49. Petrol Engine has compression ratio from
    • 6 to 10
    • 10 to 15
    • 15 to 25
    • 25 to 40

  50. Which of the following is not included under the definition of wages given under the payment of wages Act,1936?
    • Basic wage
    • Dearness Allowance
    • Gratuity
    • Incentive

  51. Shadow price in linear programming refers to the
    • lowest sales price
    • maximum cost per item
    • value assigned to one unit
    • cost of bought out items

  52. Which of the following stock valuation methods is based on a cost estimate made before the part is purchased?
    • FIFO
    • WFO
    • Standard costing
    • Average costing

  53. Vehicle manufacturing assembly line is an example of
    • Product layout
    • Process layout
    • Group layout
    • Fixed position layout

  54. For forecasting the potential of a new product which one of the following methods is used?
    • Time series analysis
    • Direct survey method
    • Sales force composite method
    • Jury of executive opinion method

  55. SIMO charts are used in
    • method study
    • micro motion study
    • process analysis
    • layout analysis

  56. The control chart used for the fraction of defective items in a sample is
    • Range chart
    • Mean chart
    • P-chart
    • C-chart

  57. Low cost, higher volume items requires
    • no inspection
    • little inspection
    • intensive inspection
    • 100% inspection

  58. Which of the following is not a method of depreciation?
    • Replacement method
    • Revaluation
    • Reducing balance
    • Straight line

  59. The department which take care of both production as well as control is
    • Routing
    • Dispatching
    • Expediting
    • Scheduling

  60. Queuing theory is associated with
    • Sales
    • Inspection time
    • Production time
    • Waiting time

  61. If y = logex + logxe + logxx, then the value of the derivative of y with respect to x at x = e is :
    • 0
    • 1
    • e
    • None of these

  62. Equation of the line with mid-point (3, 2) on then portion between the x and y axis is :
    • 2x-3y = 0
    • 3x+2y = 13
    • 2x+3y = 12
    • None of these

  63. The area of the parallelogram with one at the origin, having sides as lines with slopes 3 and 4 and making unit intercept on the y-axis is :
    • 1
    • 2
    • 3
    • 4

  64. The minimum value of logax +logxa at x = a/2 where 0 < a/2 < a is :
    • 0
    • 1
    • 2
    • 3

  65. If f(x) = min {|x - 1|, |x|, |x+1|} then the indefinite integral of f(x) between -1 and 1 is :
    • 0
    • 1
    • z
    • None of these

  66. The area of the graph of the function y = |x-5| and the y axis between the limits 0 and 8 is :
    • 17
    • 9
    • 12
    • 18

  67. The larger of 9999 + 10099 and 10199 is :
    • 10199
    • 9999 + 10099
    • Both are equal
    • None of these

  68. The value of a for which the system of equations 2x + y - 5 = 0, x - 2y + 1 = 0 and 2x - 14y - a = 0 is consistent is :
    • 1
    • 2
    • -16
    • -12

  69. If cosα + cosβ = 0 = sinα + sinβ then cos2α + cos2β =
    • -2 sin (α + β)
    • -2 cos (α + β)
    • 2 sin (α + β)
    • 2 cos (α +β)

  70. The value of 4 cos A cos (60-A) cos (60 + A) is
    • 8 cos 3A
    • 4 cos 3A
    • 2 cos 3A
    • cos 3A

  71. Frequency of AC power distribution in India is
    • 230 Hz
    • 60 Hz
    • 50 Hz
    • 11 Hz

  72. If 'n' number of resistors with 'R' Ohm each are connected in series and parallel separately, the equivalent resistance will be
    • nR and R/n
    • (n+R) and (n-R)
    • nR and n/R
    • nR and (R-n)

  73. The impedance in an R-L-C series circuit at Resonance condition will be
    • X/R
    • R
    • L/R
    • LC

  74. In AC circuits the power delivered to load at Unity Power Factor (UPF) condition will be
    • Negative
    • Minimum
    • Zero
    • Maximum

  75. The device which is connected in electrical wiring for earth leakage protection is
    • ELCB
    • MCB
    • Fuse
    • Isolator

  76. In a brick masonry what is called a lap?
    • distance between successive vertical joints
    • distance between successive courses
    • distance between adjacent bats
    • distance between adjacent queen closers

  77. What is meant by reduced level?
    • height of line of collimation above bench mark
    • height of a point above bench mark
    • depth of a point below datum
    • depth of a point below bench mark

  78. For preparation of concrete which type of aggregate should be preferred for economy?
    • angular aggregate
    • rounded aggregate
    • flaky aggregate
    • elongated aggregate

  79. Which among the following is Fe 250 grade steel?
    • Plain bars
    • HYSD bars
    • TOR steel
    • TMT steel

  80. In which case direct ranging is used?
    • If two stations are not intervisible
    • If the intervening ground between two stations is a hill
    • If the distance between two stations is less than the length of measuring chain
    • If the distance between two stations is more than the length of measuring chain

  81. The function of a flywheel is
    • To convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion
    • To convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion of the valve rod
    • To prevent fluctuation of speed
    • To keep engine speed uniform at all load conditions

  82. The thermodynamic cycle on which petrol engine works is
    • Otto
    • Joule
    • Rankine
    • Stirling

  83. A moderator in a nuclear power plant is a medium used to
    • Slow down the speed of fast moving electrons
    • Control the reaction
    • Reduce the temperature
    • Extract heat from nuclear reaction

  84. A Pelton turbine requires
    • High head and high discharge
    • High head and low discharge
    • Low head and low discharge
    • low head and high discharge

  85. In an automotive differential, the drive pinion is assembled into the
    • Drive shaft
    • Axle case
    • Differential case
    • Differential housing

  86. In an unregulated power supply, if input ac voltage increases output voltage _________
    • Increases
    • Decreases
    • Remains the same
    • None of these

  87. If energy is taken from the ac side of the inverter and sends it back into the dc side then it is known as__________
    • Motoring mode operation
    • Braking mode operation
    • Regenerative mode operation
    • None of these

  88. The type of access used in GSM technology is __________
    • FDMA/TDMA
    • CDMA
    • OFDMA
    • None of these

  89. The coverage and capacity of CDMA system is more than that of GSM system.
    • True
    • False
    • Equal
    • None of these

  90. Which toxic compound is not found in e-waste?
    • Mercury
    • Cadmium
    • Neon
    • Lead

  91. The first law minister of Kerala is __________
    • V.R. Krishna Iyer
    • C. Achutha Menon
    • E. Chandrasekaran Nair
    • K.R. Gouri

  92. The first session of constituent assembly convened in __________
    • 1950 January 26
    • 1950 January 24
    • 1950 January 30
    • 1950 February 28
    Question error

  93. Who started Pandhibojanam (Mixed dining) firstly is India?
    • Thycad Ayyaguru
    • Dr. Palpu
    • Sahodaran Ayyappan
    • Sri Narayana Guru

  94. The famous 'Kadampuzha' temple situates in which district?
    • Thrissur
    • Palakkad
    • Kozhikode
    • Malappuram

  95. Ezhava Memorial submitted to __________
    • Sri Chithira Thirunal
    • Swathi Thirunal
    • Sri Moolam Thirunal
    • Rani Laxmi Bai Thampuvatti

  96. Who translated ' Qu-ran' firstly into Malayalam?
    • K.M. Moulavi
    • E.K. Moulavi
    • Mohamed Amani Moulavi
    • Vakkom Abdur Kader Moulavi

  97. Who is the author of the book, 'Thee Kadal Kadanj Thirumathuram'?
    • C. Radhakrishnan
    • Sethu
    • Vaishakan
    • V.R. Sudheesh

  98. 'Arangu Kanatha Nadan' is the autobiography of __________
    • N.N. Pillai
    • P.J. Antony
    • Thikkodiyan
    • Ibrahim Vengara

  99. Who is the Kerala Minister for Hajj Affairs?
    • Dr. K.T. Jaleel
    • A.C. Moideen
    • G. Sudakaran
    • V.S. Sunilkumar

  100. Who among the following is not the leader of 1921 Malabar Revolt?
    • Seethi Koya Thangal
    • Variyan Kunnath Kunhamed Haji
    • Ali Musliyar
    • Mamburam Syed Alavi Thangal

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