Assistant Dental Surgeon Health Services 490/2016 Answer Key 119/2017

dentist

Post : Assistant Dental Surgeon
Department : Health Services
Category Code : 490/16
Qualification: Degree in Dentistry (BDS) + Valid Registration with Kerala Dental Council.
Question Paper Code : 119/17
Date of Test : 12-10-2017

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  1. Sphenomandibular ligament is a remnant of :
    • 1st Pharyngeal arch
    • 2nd Pharyngeal arch
    • 3rd Pharyngeal arch
    • 4th Pharyngeal arch

  2. Secretomotor innervation of parotid gland is derived from :
    • Superior Salivatory nucleus
    • Inferior salivatory nucleus
    • Nucleus tractus solitarius
    • Lacrimatory nucleus

  3. Which of the following muscles of tongue is NOT supplied by hypoglossal nerve?
    • Styloglossus
    • Hyoglossus
    • Genioglossus
    • Palatoglossus

  4. All are branches of external carotid artery EXCEPT :
    • Inferior thyroid artery
    • Lingual artery
    • Facial artery
    • Occipital artery

  5. Which of the following muscles is the depressor of temporomandibular joint?
    • Temporalis
    • Massetor
    • Lateral pterygoid
    • Medial pterygoid

  6. Which is the main form of transport of CO2 in blood?
    • Carbamino Hb
    • Dissolved form
    • Carbonic acid
    • Bicarbonate

  7. Hemoglobin is converted to bilirubin in :
    • Liver
    • Spleen
    • Bone marrow
    • Kidney

  8. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in brain is :
    • Glutamate
    • Glycine
    • GABA
    • Ach

  9. Maximum absorption of water takes place in :
    • Collecting duct
    • Distal convoluted tubule
    • Proximal convoluted tubule
    • Loop of Henle

  10. Oncotic pressure of plasma is due to :
    • Albumin
    • Fibrinogen
    • RBC
    • Electrolytes

  11. Chromosomal abnormality associated with Chronic myeloid leukemia is :
    • t(8;21)
    • t(9;22)
    • del 5q-
    • t(15;16)

  12. __________ is a feature of chronic inflammation.
    • Keloid
    • Suppuration
    • Granulation tissue
    • Granuloma

  13. Following are components of Virchow’s triad except :
    • emboli
    • hypercoagulability
    • altered blood flow
    • endothelial injury

  14. Among the following, __________ is a proto oncogene.
    • p53
    • Rb
    • APC
    • cERB B2

  15. Which of the following findings is seen in red blood cells in Megaloblastic anemia?
    • Macropolycyte
    • Dohle bodies
    • Cabot rings
    • Dutcher body

  16. Which among the following is an Ionotropic Receptor?
    • GABAA Receptor
    • D1 Receptor
    • Muscarinic Receptor
    • D2 Receptor

  17. Therapeutic Index is expressed as :
    • LD50/ED50
    • LD50×ED50
    • ED50/LD50
    • LD1/ED99

  18. Acute development of tolerance after rapid and repeated administration of drugs at short intervals is :
    • Tachyphylaxis
    • Idiosyncrasy
    • Cross tolerance
    • Metabolic tolerance

  19. In which phase of clinical trial pharmacological evaluation of the new drug is performed on healthy volunteers?
    • Phase III
    • Phase II
    • Phase I
    • Phase IV

  20. Alcoholic extracts of plant drugs are called :
    • Elixirs
    • Tinctures
    • Emulsion
    • Linctus

  21. Choose the best dietary source of Vitamin C from the following :
    • Meat
    • Milk
    • Citrus fruits
    • Egg

  22. The protein digesting enzyme present in the stomach :
    • Cathepsin
    • Chymotrypsin
    • Pepsin
    • Trypsin

  23. The sugar of milk :
    • Galactose
    • Lactose
    • Maltose
    • Sucrose

  24. Tetany is manifested in :
    • Respiratory alkalosis
    • Diabetic ketoacidosis
    • Lactic acidosis
    • Respiratory acidosis

  25. One of the following test is not useful to assess kidney function :
    • Plasma Urea
    • Plasma Cretinine
    • Plasma Creatine
    • Plasma Cystatin

  26. Which of the following bacterial cultures show red fluorescence when exposed to UV light?
    • Bacteriodes fragilis
    • Porphyromonas gingivalis
    • Prevotella melanogenica
    • Fusobacterium nucleatum

  27. Which is the causative agent of Dental caries?
    • Streptococcus mutans
    • Staphylococcus aureus
    • Enterococcus
    • Streptococcus agalactiae

  28. Mechanism of Drug resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is :
    • Transformation
    • Conjugation
    • Transduction
    • Mutation

  29. Which of the following viral markers is first to appear in blood after infection with Hepatitis B virus?
    • HBs Ag
    • HBe Ag
    • Both HBs Ag and HBe Ag
    • None of these

  30. Hard chancre is characteristic of :
    • Primary syphilis
    • Secondary syphilis
    • Tertiary syphilis
    • None of these

  31. Electric pulp tests are known to be unreliable in young permanent teeth, because :
    • late development of dentinal tubular fluid dynamics
    • the relatively late development of A delta fibres
    • the late development of Tome’s fibres
    • pain threshold is inconsistent in children

  32. In SI/STA Classification of dental caries; SI 1 is applied to :
    • Pit and Fissure caries
    • Proximal Surface Caries
    • Root Caries
    • Smooth Surface Caries

  33. C-factor of class I cavity is :
    • 3
    • 4
    • 5
    • 6

  34. What does the term SCAP in an immature, permanent tooth denote?
    • surgical closure of apical foramen
    • a unique population of dental mesenchymal stem cells
    • retrograde apical sealing technique
    • apical barrier apexification procedure

  35. The angle the blade makes with the central longitudinal axis of the endodontic file is called :
    • Cutting Angle
    • Rake Angle
    • Clearance Angle
    • Helix Angle

  36. The extent of facial and lingual cervical contours for maxillary teeth from the CEJ is approximately :
    • 0.5 mm
    • 1.0 mm
    • 1.5 mm
    • 2.0 mm

  37. Who first introduced the term “Dead tracts” in dentin?
    • Anders Retzius
    • Von Ebner
    • Wilfred Fish
    • K. Kawasaki

  38. How many teeth are seen in the Orthopantomogram (OPG) of a 6 months old child?
    • 28
    • 30
    • 32
    • 34

  39. RANK-RANKL-OPG signaling pathway is important in regulating the differentiation and activation of which cells?
    • Osteoblasts
    • Osteoclasts
    • T-Lymphocytes
    • B-Lymphocytes

  40. Which non-keratinocyte has desmosomal attachment with adjacent cells?
    • Merkel cells
    • Mast cells
    • Melanocytes
    • Langerhans cells

  41. Postzygotic mutation of GNAS1 gene in a somatic cell leads to the formation of :
    • Pagets Disease
    • Osteogenesis Imperfecta
    • Fibrous Dysplasia
    • Ectodermal Dysplasia

  42. The gene for the production of Plasma thromboplastin antecedent (Factor XI) is located on :
    • Chromosome X
    • Chromosome Y
    • Chromosome 6
    • Chromosome 4

  43. Congenital unilateral ptosis, with rapid elevation of the ptotic eyelid occurring on movement of the mandible to the contralateral side is called :
    • Marcus Gunn Syndrome
    • Marin Amat Syndrome
    • Horner’s Syndrome
    • Gorham’s Syndrome

  44. In OLEP Staging system for Oral leukoplakia, which one of the following lesion is included in Stage III?
    • L1P0
    • L1P1
    • L2P0
    • L3P1

  45. Which is the most common salivary neoplasm arising from an odontogenic cyst?
    • Acinic Cell Carcinoma
    • Adeno Carcinoma
    • Mucoepidemoid Carcinoma
    • Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma

  46. Open bites, associated with craniofacial syndromes is a deviation from normal in :
    • Vertical plane
    • Horizontal plane
    • Transverse plane
    • Occlusal plane

  47. Highest form of clinical evidence in hierarchy of quality that exists to guide clinical decision is :
    • Randomized control trials
    • Retrospective study
    • Meta analysis
    • Prospective study

  48. Among the following which tooth calcification is commonly associated with assessment of skeletal maturity?
    • Maxillary central incisor
    • Mandibular canine
    • Maxillary first molar
    • Mandibular first molar

  49. The personality considered as forerunner of rapid maxillary expander is :
    • Norman Kingsley
    • Vigo Andresen
    • Hyrax
    • Emerson C Angell

  50. Which among the following techniques cannot enhance the rate of tooth movement?
    • Application of vibration to tooth
    • Application of heat to teeth and alveolar bone
    • Application of light to alveolar process
    • Application of ultrasound to teeth and surroundings

  51. Genetic theory of Growth was put forward by :
    • Brodie in 1941
    • Pertovic in 1974
    • Moss in 1962
    • Sicher in 1955

  52. In cephalometrics, pterygoid vertical plane (PTV) is :
    • Line through Nasion (N) perpendicular to PH plane
    • Line perpendicular to FH plane through Pt point
    • Tangent to inferior border of Mandible through Pt point
    • Line parallel to Pterygoid process

  53. Which is not a mixed Dentition Analysis?
    • Huckaba’s Analysis
    • Ashley Hower’s Analysis
    • Hixon and Old father Method
    • Tanaka and Johnston Analysis

  54. Kinectic Cavity Preparation :
    • is Painless
    • there is no vibration or pressure to cause microfracture that weakens tooth
    • local anesthesia is always needed
    • works quietly
    Question error

  55. Which is not a complication associated with stainless steel crown?
    • Crown tilt
    • Inhalation or Ingestion
    • Interproximal ledge
    • Premature contacts well tolerated by child

  56. Collimators are made up of :
    • Tungsten
    • Molybdenum
    • Copper
    • Lead

  57. Cystic, keratin filled nodules seen along the mid palatine raphae :
    • Bohn’s nodules
    • Lateral periodontal cyst
    • Epstein pearls
    • Calcifying Odontogenic Cyst

  58. Herpangina is caused by :
    • Coxsackie virus
    • Cytomegalovirus
    • Herpes virus
    • None

  59. Restrainer in developing solution :
    • Potassium bromide
    • Sodium sulfite
    • Sodium hydroxide
    • Potassium hydroxide

  60. Dimension of occlusal film :
    • 50 mm × 75 mm
    • 57 mm × 76 mm
    • 55 mm × 75 mm
    • 50 mm × 76 mm

  61. Which among the following study designs is best suited for estimation of relative risk?
    • Cross sectional study
    • Cohort study
    • Case control study
    • Randomized control trial

  62. Each study subject also serves as a control in :
    • Concurrent parallel trial
    • Cohort study
    • Quasi experimental study
    • Cross over trial

  63. Which of the following is the most cost effective technique for prevention of caries?
    • Community water fluoridation
    • Use of fluoride dentifrice
    • Professional application of fluoride varnish
    • Knutson’s technique

  64. Identify the third generation chemical plaque control agent from the following :
    • Sangunarine
    • Phenols
    • Chlorhexidine
    • Delmopinol

  65. Incidence can be obtained from :
    • Cross sectional study
    • Case Control study
    • Longitudinal study
    • Ecological study

  66. The predominance of plasma cells is thought to be a primary characteristic of :
    • Advanced lesion
    • Early lesion
    • Established lesion
    • Initial lesion

  67. The cytokeratins which are expressed in the junctional epithelium are :
    • K4 and K13
    • K5 and K14
    • K6 and K16
    • K1 and K2

  68. The technique that surgically removes the pocket wall is :
    • Undisplaced flap
    • Modified Widman flap
    • Papilla preservation flap
    • Conventional flap

  69. Which of the following electronic probe is capable of locating the cementoenamel junction?
    • Interprobe
    • Foster Miller probe
    • Periprobe
    • Florida probe

  70. Which of the following is a sulcular brushing technique?
    • Modified Stillman technique
    • Fones technique
    • Charters technique
    • Bass technique

  71. Amount of Lignocaine present in 2cc of 2% LA solution is :
    • 40 mg
    • 20 mg
    • 400 mg
    • 0.4 mg

  72. The pathognomonic sign of fracture mandible is :
    • Deranged occlusion
    • Displacement
    • Open Bite
    • Sublingual Hematoma

  73. The direction of first force applied in extracting upper anterior tooth is :
    • Rotational
    • Buccal
    • Apical
    • Palatal

  74. Sodium metabisulphite is added to local anaesthetic solution as :
    • Vasoconstrictor
    • Principal active ingredient
    • Anti oxidant to protect vasoconstrictor
    • Antifungal Agent

  75. Which of the following is the drug of choice in Anaphylactic shock?
    • Sodium Nitroprusside
    • Adrenalin
    • Phenergan
    • Deriphylline

  76. Gypsum is :
    • CaSO4.2H2O
    • (CaSO4)2.H2O
    • H2SO4
    • CaSO4

  77. Freeway space =
    • occlusal vertical dimension + rest vertical dimension
    • occlusal vertical dimension − rest vertical dimension
    • rest vertical dimension − occlusal vertical dimension
    • rest vertical dimension

  78. In RPD, border of maxillary major connector should be at least __________ away from the gingival crevice of teeth.
    • 5 mm
    • 6 mm
    • 6 cm
    • 5 cm

  79. In tooth preparation for fixed partial dentures and crowns, bevel should be prepared in :
    • non functional cusp
    • functional cusp
    • in both cusps
    • none

  80. Type of minor connector in removable partial denture that is not required to be rigid :
    • connects denture base to major connector
    • join clasp assembly to major connector
    • join indirect retainer to major connector
    • approach arm for Bar type clasp

  81. Which article of Indian constitution deals with ‘General Election’?
    • Article 321
    • Article 312
    • Article 330
    • Article 331
    Question error

  82. Who is the Hajj affairs minister of Kerala?
    • A.C. Moideen
    • K.T. Jaleel
    • T.K. Hamza
    • G. Sudakaran

  83. Which is the Headquarters of Calicut University?
    • Karyavattom
    • Mannuthi
    • Thrikkakara
    • Tenhippalam

  84. Who is the first Keralite Oscar winner?
    • Vincent
    • P.J. Antony
    • Rasool Pukkutty
    • Hariharan

  85. Dum Dum Airport of Kolkotta is renamed as __________ .
    • Jyothibasu Airport
    • Rabindranath Tagore Airport
    • Subash Chandra Bose Airport
    • Chathrapathi Shivaji Airport

  86. ‘Upanishads’ generally deals with __________ .
    • Philosophy
    • Vyakarana
    • Way of Life
    • Meditation

  87. ‘Yasoda’ was the __________ of Buddha.
    • Sister
    • Mother
    • Daughter
    • Wife

  88. Which of the following was the centre of Sangam literature?
    • Mahodayapuram
    • Madurai
    • Puhar
    • Kaveripattanam

  89. Gandhiji’s first involvement in Indian political affairs was in __________ .
    • Champaran Satyagraha
    • Anti - Rowlatt Act Campaign
    • Salt Satyagraha
    • Civil Disobedience Movement

  90. Salt Satyagraha in Kerala was at __________ .
    • Payyannur
    • Kozhikode
    • Kodungallur
    • Kochi

  91. Who was elected as the President of Central Legislative Assembly in 1925 as a representative of Swarajist party?
    • Motilal Nehru
    • Vithal Bai Patel
    • C.R. Das
    • Vallabai Patel

  92. How many persons signed in ‘Malayali Memorial’ of 1891?
    • 10048
    • 10038
    • 10018
    • 10028

  93. The first railway line in Kerala runs between __________ .
    • Bepore and Tirur
    • Ernakulam and Thrissiveperur
    • Kayamkulam and Shornnur
    • Kozhikode and Kannur

  94. Who among the following is not a member of Cabinet Mission?
    • Pathik Lawrence
    • Strafford Cripps
    • A.V. Alexander
    • Jhon Simon

  95. Gandhi - Irwin Pact was in __________ .
    • 1921
    • 1931
    • 1929
    • 1932

  96. Who is the author of ‘Neel Darpan’?
    • Arabindo Gosh
    • Bal Gangadhar Tilak
    • Deenbandhu Mitra
    • Gopal Krishna Gokhale

  97. Which one of the following was not the aim of Non-Co-operation Movement?
    • Attainment of Complete Independence
    • Attainment of Swaraj
    • Solution to Punjab problem
    • Solution to Khilafath Issue

  98. Who among the following is not the leader of Khilafat Movement?
    • Moulana Mohamedali
    • Moulana Shoukathali
    • Hakim Ajmal Khan
    • Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

  99. Who was the leader of ‘Pookottur war’ which occurred during Malabar Rebellion of 1921?
    • Ali Musliyar
    • Vadakkeveettil Mohamed
    • Karadan Moideen
    • Seethikoya Thangal

  100. Which one of the following was not the feature of India Act of 1935?
    • All India Federation
    • Provincial Autonomy
    • Provincial Dyarchy
    • Separate Electorate

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