Lab Assistant (Dialysis) Medical Education 368/2015 Answer Key 116/2017

Post : Lab Assistant (Dialysis)
Department : Medical Education
Category Code : 368/15
Qualification : B.Sc Degree in Zoology/ Chemistry/ Physics
Question Paper Code : 116/17
Date of Test : 05-10-2017

1. The motion of an iron ball falling down under the action of gravity near the surface of the earth is :
   • uniform velocity
   • uniform acceleration
   • non-uniform acceleration
   • uniform retardation
   
   
2. Two objects are said to have perfectly elastic collision when, before and after collision, their :
   • momentum and kinetic energy are conserved
   • momentum is conserved and kinetic energy is not conserved
   • momentum is not conserved and kinetic energy is conserved
   • momentum and kinetic energy are not conserved
   
   
3. The process involved in the sudden bursting of cycle tyre is :
   • isochoric process
   • isothermal process
   • adiabatic process
   • isobaric process
   
   
4. The temperature at which the reading on the Celsius scale of temperature and Fahrenheit scale of temperature becomes equal :
   • − 30 degree
   • − 20 degree
   • − 50 degree
   • − 40 degree
   
   
5. Fundamental equation that relates fluid pressure, fluid velocity and fluid height is :
   • Equation of continuity
   • Bernoulli’s theorem
   • Stoke’s law
   • Archimede’s principle
   
   
6. The resistance of a conductor depends on :
   • length of the conductor
   • area of cross-section of the conductor
   • material of the conductor
   • all of these
   
   
7. The vibrant colours seen on the surface of thin oil films on the surface of water is due to :
   • interference of light
   • refraction of light
   • dispersion of light
   • scattering of light
   
   
8. An example of universal gate is :
   • NOT gate
   • AND gate
   • OR gate
   • NOR gate
   
   
9. The increasing order of frequency of electromagnetic wave is :
   • X-ray, gamma ray, radio wave, microwave
   • gamma ray, radio wave, X-ray, microwave
   • radio wave, microwave, X-ray, gamma ray
   • microwave, gamma ray, radio wave, X-ray
   
   
10. When a double convex lens with refractive index 1.5, is immersed in a solution of Carbon disulphide with refractive index 1.62, the focal length of this lens becomes?
    • more positive
    • negative
    • zero
    • infinite
    
    
11. Albumin, Globulin, and Fibrinogen are :
    • Intestinal enzymes
    • Plasma Proteins
    • Carbohydrates
    • Pituitary hormones
    
    
12. Select the parts of nephron from the following :
    • Henle’s loop and Bowman’s capsule
    • Axon and Dendron
    • Actin filament and myosin filament
    • Collagen and Elastin
    
    
13. “Crossing over” during meiosis leads to :
    • Gene migration
    • Translation
    • Transcription
    • Gene recombination
    
    
14. Find out the character of mammals from the following :
    • Poikilo thermous
    • Pneumatic bone
    • Hairy Exoskeleton
    • Water vascular system
    
    
15. Which of the following is a Protozoan disease?
    • Typhoid fever
    • Pneumonia
    • Malaria
    • Common Cold
    
    
16. Hormones show “Antagonistic effects” are :
    • Adrenalin and nor adrenalin
    • Insulin and Glucagon
    • Calcitonin and Thyroxin
    • Oxytocin and Vasopressin
    
    
17. Who proposed the double helical structural model to DNA?
    • Sutton and Boveri
    • Hershey and Chase
    • T.H. Morgan
    • James Watson and Francis Crick
    
    
18. Azotobacter and Azospirillum are :
    • Biofertilizers
    • Biocontrol agents
    • Source of narcotic drugs
    • Plant Pathogens
    
    
19. Select the method of Exitu Conservation of Biodiversity from the following :
    • Sacred groves
    • National park
    • Zoological park
    • Biosphere reserve
    
    
20. Peptide bond is found in :
    • Protein
    • Glycogen
    • Starch
    • Nucleic acids
    
    
21. Number of electrons present in 1 mol H2O is :
    • 6.022 × 1023
    • 18 × 6.022 × 1023
    • 6.022 × 1024
    • 18
    
    
22. pH of .1 Molar NaOH solution assuming complete ionization is :
    • 1
    • 13
    • 14
    • None
    
    
23. Duma’s method is used for estimation of :
    • Nitrogen
    • Sulphur
    • Halogen
    • Phosphorous
    
    
24. Which of the following is an intensive property?
    • Mass
    • Volume
    • Density
    • Heat Capacity
    
    
25. The rate constant of a reaction is 2.5 × 10⁻⁴ S⁻¹ . The order of the reaction is :
    • 1
    • 0
    • 2
    • 3
    
    
26. Number of electrons possible in a quantum level with 1=2 :
    • 2
    • 4
    • 8
    • 10
    
    
27. Which of the following is a tribasic acid?
    • H₃PO₄
    • H₃PO₃
    • H₃PO₂
    • All of these
    
    
28. Shape of X_eF₂ molecule is :
    • See Saw
    • Linear
    • Square planar
    • Octahedral
    
    
29. Which of the following compounds will not undergo Iodoform test?
    • Ethanol
    • Ethanal
    • Propanone
    • Propanal
    
    
30. Which of the following is not a nucleophile?
    • NH₃
    • H₂O
    • BF₃
    • OH⁻
    
    
31. The three steps of urine formation are :
    • Glomerular filtration, diffusion, ultrafiltration
    • Filtration, reabsorption, ultrafiltration
    • Filtration, reabsorption, secretion
    • Clearance, glomerular filtration, ultrafiltration
    
    
32. What is the normal adult glomerular filtration rate?
    • 99 ml/hr
    • 2000 ml/day
    • 80 ml/hr
    • 125 ml/min
    
    
33. All of the following are functions of the kidney except :
    • Regulation of acid base balance
    • Maintenance of fluid balance
    • Elimination of metabolic waste
    • Release of aldosterone
    
    
34. Diffusion is the movement of :
    • Solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
    • Solute from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
    • Solvent from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
    • Solvent from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
    
    
35. An elevated serum potassium is when the level is above :
    • 2.5 mEq/L
    • 4.0 mEq/L
    • 2.0 mEq/L
    • 5.5 mEq/L
    
    
36. Acidosis is defined when pH falls below :
    • Less than 7.35
    • Less than 7.45
    • Less than 7.55
    • Less than 8.0
    
    
37. Primary cause of anemia in CKD is :
    • Erythropoietin deficiency
    • Iron deficiency
    • Blood loss
    • Folate deficiency
    
    
38. The list below indicates reasons for malnutrition in chronic renal failure. Of these which one is considered to be the major cause of malnutrition?
    • Metabolic derangements
    • Dialysis associated catabolism
    • Uremic toxins
    • Decreased nutrient intake
    
    
39. In hemodialysis, the removal of urea from the patient is Primarily due to the existence of :
    • Osmotic pressure
    • Hydrostatic pressure
    • Electrical gradient
    • Concentration gradient
    
    
40. The optimum value for the dialysis solution flow rate is ___________ times the blood flow rate.
    • 1.0 - 1.5
    • 2.0 - 2.5
    • 1.5 - 2.0
    • 2.5 - 3.0
    
    
41. The first two hemodialysis treatments, for a patient with an extremely elevated BUN, are (purposely) less efficient to primarily prevent which complication?
    • Rapid decrease in hematocrit
    • Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome
    • Cardiac arrhythmias
    • Excessive anticoagulation
    
    
42. Transmembrane pressure consists of which of the following pressure gradients on each side of the dialysis membrane?//(i) Positive pressure on the blood side//(ii)Negative pressure on the blood side//(iii)Positive pressure on the dialysate side//(iv)Negative pressure on the dialysate side
    • (iv)only
    • (ii) and (iv) only
    • (ii) and (iii)only
    • (i) and (iv) only
    
    
43. To maintain an optimum gradient between blood and dialysate across the dialyzer membrane which type of blood to dialysate flow is used?
    • Co-current flow
    • Cross-current flow
    • Counter-current flow
    • Parallel flow
    
    
44. The potential for an air embolism to occur during hemodialysis is great. However, the technology today makes it a rare occurrence. What possible reason could there be for this to really happen to your patient?
    • Disconnected venous needle
    • Disconnected arterial line
    • Malfunctioning air detector
    • Saline bag for infusion depleted
    
    
45. The dialysis machine assures the dialysate entering the dialyzer is safe for the patient’s treatment. What does it do to assure this?
    • Regulates the temperature, conductivity, pH, measures pressure and flow, detects a blood leak
    • Alerts the user if something is wrong
    • Bypasses the dialyzer if dialysate is not safe
    • All of these
    
    
46. The movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration is called :
    • Diffusion
    • Osmosis
    • Ultrafiltration
    • Dialysis
    
    
47. The volume of plasma cleared of a given substance per unit of time is the definition of :
    • Clearance
    • Dialysis
    • Dialysance
    • Net flux
    
    
48. What are the factors to consider when establishing a dry weight for the patient?
    • Blood pressure
    • Patient well being
    • Evidence of dehydration or overload
    • All of these
    
    
49. The process by which a large volume of fluid is removed at a rapid rate, with little or no solute removal except by convection is called :
    • Osmosis
    • Hemodialysis
    • Ultrafiltration
    • Isolated or pure ultrafiltration
    
    
50. The primary purpose of the proportional pump in a dialysate delivery system is to :
    • Prepare the dialysate in proper pH
    • Prepare the dialysate in proper temperature
    • Prepare the dialysate in proper water to concentrate ratio
    • Deliver the concentrate at the proper rate
    
    
51. Why is the hemodialysis patient discouraged from eating heavy meals before or during dialysis?
    • May cause hyperkalemia post dialysis
    • Can contribute to vomiting during dialysis
    • May contribute to hypotension
    • All of these
    
    
52. Urea clearance is enhanced by :
    • High blood flow rate and high dialysate flow rate
    • Co-current flow
    • A small dialyzer
    • Osmotic pressure gradient
    
    
53. What is the national standard for hemodialysis prescription (weekly KT/V) to minimize morbidity/mortality rates?
    • > 0.8
    • > 0.4
    • > 1.0
    • > 1.2
    
    
54. The regular use of a high sodium dialysate bath may predispose the patient to :
    • Fluid overload
    • Hypertension
    • Thirst
    • All of these
    
    
55. Kolff developed the :
    • First disposable dialyzer
    • First plate dialyzer
    • Scribner shunt
    • Mahurker catheter
    
    
56. The capability of a dialyzer to remove fluid expressed as ml/hr/mmHg is called :
    • UF- coefficient
    • Clearance
    • Surface area
    • Priming volume
    
    
57. Pre-pump arterial pressure reading is reflective of :
    • The pressure required to pump the blood through the circuit
    • The resistance of the access to the blood flow out of the access device
    • The pressure within the dialyzer
    • None of these
    
    
58. What symptoms might be manifested in the patient experiencing air embolism?
    • Cyanosis, hypotension, burning in the chest
    • Chest pain, Shortness of Breath, confusion
    • Confusion, cherry red blood
    • Hypotension, double vision
    
    
59. The appearance of cherry red blood, drop in Hct, hypotension, and chest pain are signs of :
    • Residual chemical reaction
    • First use syndrome
    • Disequilibrium syndrome
    • Hemolysis
    
    
60. What determines the surface area of a hollow fiber dialyzer?
    • Number of fibers
    • Inner diameter
    • Length
    • All of these
    
    
61. The most important predisposing factors for muscle cramping during hemodialysis are all except :
    • Hypovolemia
    • Hypotension
    • High sodium dialysis solution
    • High UF rate
    
    
62. All of the following statements concerning “first use syndrome” are true except :
    • This is an allergic reaction to new dialyzers
    • Back pain, chest pain and difficulty breathing may be manifested
    • Symptoms are usually manifested within 15 minutes of contact
    • Synthetic membranes are more commonly associated with this syndrome
    
    
63. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning disequilibrium syndrome?//(i) Most common in severely catabolic cases//(ii) Headaches, confusion, and seizures may be manifested//(iii) Occurrence is related to cerebral edema//(iv) Can only be seen in a patient who has never had dialysis before
    • (i) only
    • (i) and (iv) only
    • (i), (ii) and (iii) only
    • All of these
    
    
64. Who developed the fistula?
    • Turner
    • Scribner
    • Quinton
    • Brescia and Cimino
    
    
65. What is the purpose of a chest x-ray after the insertion of a dual lumen catheter into a subclavian or jugular vein?
    • To confirm proper placement of the catheter
    • To confirm patency of the catheter
    • To confirm patency and position
    • To confirm position and absence of pneumothorax
    
    
66. Subclavian vein catheterization should be avoided for temporary access in all patients with renal failure due to increased risk of :
    • Central vein stenosis
    • Pneumothorax
    • Infection
    • Difficult insertion
    
    
67. The measurement of total cell volume (TCV) is used to determine :
    • Performance of the dialyzer
    • Blood leak
    • Contaminants
    • Residual chemical
    
    
68. Prior to every patient connection to a hemodialysis machine, the dialysate should be tested for :
    • Colour of the dialysate
    • Electrolyte content
    • Temperature
    • Conductivity and pH
    
    
69. What is the purpose of regional heparinization?
    • To systematically anticoagulate the patient
    • To give only enough Heparin to keep the dialyzer clear
    • Low dose Heparin
    • To anticoagulate the blood in extracorporeal unit
    
    
70. How much protamine sulfate should be given to neutralize Heparin?
    • 1-1.5 mg protamine/100 u Heparin
    • 2 mg protamine/1000 u Heparin
    • 1 u protamine/1 u Heparin
    • Depends on the patient weight
    
    
71. Heparinization during hemodialysis can be best monitored by :
    • Bleeding
    • Clotting
    • Whole blood activated clotting time
    • Clotting in dialysis circuit
    
    
72. What preventive measures can be practiced in dialysis units to control the incidence of Hepatitis B transmission?
    • Regular screening of patients and staff
    • Designated area for patients with HbsAg positivity
    • Offering Hepatitis B vaccine to all patients and staff
    • All of these
    
    
73. During PD ultrafiltration is accomplished by the utilization of :
    • Hypertonic dialysate
    • Hypotonic dialysate
    • Isotonic dialysate
    • None of these
    
    
74. Complications of Heparin therapy include all except :
    • Prolonged vascular site bleeding
    • Thrombocytopenia
    • Osteoporosis
    • Chest pain
    
    
75. Low Conductivity may be caused by :
    • Inadequate water flow
    • Empty concentrate container
    • Improperly prepared or incorrect concentrate
    • All of these
    
    
76. Presence of this ion is responsible for hardness of water :
    • Fluoride
    • Copper
    • Nitrates
    • Calcium
    
    
77. The LAL (Limulus Amebocyte Lysate) assay measures :
    • Organic impurities
    • Inorganic impurities
    • Bacterial count
    • Endotoxins
    
    
78. Which of the following methods are used to test the dialyzer to assure its efficacy?
    • Total cell volume
    • Leak test
    • KUF test
    • All of these
    
    
79. Which of the following membranes used in dialysis are not synthetic?
    • Polysulfone
    • Polyethersulfone
    • Cellulose
    • Polyacrylonitrile (PAN)
    
    
80. Rule of 6 in assessing AV fistula maturation are all except :
    • 6 mm in diameter
    • less than 6 mm below the skin
    • less than 6 cm in length
    • blood flow of at least 600 ml/min
    
    
81. Dialysis solution calcium levels normally range from :
    • 1.25 to 1.5 mEq/L
    • 2.5 to 3.0 mEq/L
    • 3.5 to 4.5 mEq/L
    • None of these
    
    
82. Peritonitis in peritoneal dialysis patients is defined by :
    • Presence of cloudy PD effluent
    • 100 white blood cells/mm3
    • At least 50% polymorphonuclear cells
    • All of these
    
    
83. Which among the following statements are false regarding ultrafiltration failure?
    • Net UF is less than 400ml after a 4 hour dwell of 2.25 dextrose dialysis solution
    • Net UF is less than 400ml after a 4 hour dwell of 4.25 dextrose dialysis solution
    • Net UF is less than 200ml after a 4 hour dwell of 2.25 dextrose dialysis solution
    • Net UF is less than 200ml after a 4 hour dwell of 4.25 dextrose dialysis solution
    
    
84. Benefits of regional citrate anticoagulation are all except :
    • Reduced neutrophil and complement activation
    • Reduced bleeding risk
    • Better efficacy on circuit patency
    • Hypocalcemia
    
    
85. Potential advantages of slow continuous therapies are all except :
    • Highly effective in removing fluid
    • Deleterious effect on intracranial pressure
    • Hemodynamically well tolerated
    • Better control of azotemia
    
    
86. Dialyzer efficiency is best represented by :
    • KoA
    • Ability to remove very large molecules
    • High water permeability
    • All of these
    
    
87. Hemodialysis is a therapy of choice for the following drug toxicity except :
    • Lithium
    • Salicylate
    • Ethylene glycol
    • Amitriptyline
    
    
88. The ideal blood flow rate for membrane plasma separation :
    • 50 - 100 ml/min
    • 100 - 150 ml/min
    • 150 - 200 ml/min
    • 200 - 250 ml/min
    
    
89. Complications during plasmapheresis are all except :
    • Hemorrhage
    • Hypocalcemia
    • Hypertension
    • Thrombocytopenia
    
    
90. Type A dialyzer reaction is due to all of the following except :
    • Reaction to ethylene oxide
    • Reuse syndrome
    • Heparin
    • Complement activation
    
    
91. Number of official languages included in the VIIIth schedule of the Indian Constitution :
    • 20
    • 22
    • 21
    • 18
    
    
92. Who raised the slogan ‘No caste, No religion, No God for man’?
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Chattampi Swamikal
    • Sahodaran Ayyappan
    • Ayyankali
    
    
93. Which of the following publication was known as the ‘bible of the socially depressed classes’?
    • Al-Ameen
    • Vivekodayam
    • Kesari
    • Mithavadi
    
    
94. The first Christian missionary group arrived in Kerala :
    • Jesuits
    • CMS
    • Salvation Army
    • Basel Evangelical Mission
    
    
95. The oldest existing Malayalam newspaper :
    • Mathrubhumi
    • Malayala Manorama
    • Kerala Kaumudi
    • Deepika
    
    
96. The ruler who made Temple entry proclamation in Travancore in 1936 :
    • Sri Moolam Thirunal
    • Aayilyam Thirunal
    • Sree Chithira Thirunal
    • Sethu Lakshmi Bhai
    
    
97. The leader of Guruvayur Satyagraha was :
    • K. Kelappan
    • T.K. Madhavan
    • C. Kesavan
    • Mannath Padmanabhan
    
    
98. Which of the following Country decided to quit the European Union in the last year?
    • Germany
    • France
    • Italy
    • England
    
    
99. The winner of Australian Open Tennis men’s singles title - 2017 :
    • Rafel Nadal
    • Roger Federer
    • Andy Murray
    • Novak Djokovic
    
    
100. Which woman freedom fighter was described by Gandhiji as ‘The Jhansi Rani of Travancore,?
     • Rosamma Punnose
     • Akkamma Cheriyan
     • Annie Mascarene
     • A.V. Kuttimalu Amma