Higher Secondary School Teacher Commerce (Junior) 35/2017 Answer Key

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Post : HSST Commerce (Junior)
Department : Higher Secondary Education
Category Code : 35/17
Date of Test : 29-11-2017

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  1. Type one error occurs when
    • null hypothesis is true, but is rejected
    • null hypothesis is true, but is accepted
    • null hypothesis is not true, but is rejected
    • null hypothesis is not true, but is accepted

  2. A measure of the average deviation from the mean in squared units is
    • range
    • variance
    • standard error
    • standard deviation

  3. Match the following :
    a) Ranks of the students in a musical test    -   i.    ratio scale
    b) Length and breadth of a table  -   ii.   interval scale
    c) Class numbers of the students     -   iii.  ordinal scale
    d) Intelligence scores on a test  -   iv.  nominal scale
    • a-ii,  b-iii,  c-i,  d-iv
    • a-iv,  b-i,  c-ii,  d-iii
    • a-iii,  b-i,  c-iv,  d-ii
    • a-i,  b-iv,  c-ii,  d-iii

  4. The numerical characteristic of a sample is
    • parameter
    • population
    • statistic
    • element

  5. Match the following :
    a.  Historical Research   -    i.  Current status
    b.  Phenomenological Research -   ii.  Describing culture of a group
    c.  Ethnographic Research    -   iii.  Internal criticism
    d.  Survey Research  -   iv.  Individual's experience of something
                                      -    v.  Control of variables
    • a-iv,  b-i,  c-v,  d-iii
    • a-iii,  b-iv,  c-ii,  d-i
    • a-v,  b-iii,  c-i,  d-ii
    • a-ii,  b-v,  c-iv,  d-i

  6. The scoring guide that helps teachers to evaluate student performance based on a range of criteria is
    • Portfolio
    • Rubric
    • Peer assessment
    • Reflective journal

  7. A student's work which contains new inferences resulting from analysis of information is
    • Assignment
    • Seminar
    • Project
    • None of these

  8. Ramu stands better than 80 percent of the students of his class. This is
    • Diagnostic evaluation
    • Criterion referenced evaluation
    • Norm referenced evaluation
    • Formative evaluation

  9. The right sequence of the description of the major categories in cognitive domain is
    • Knowledge, Comprehension, Analysis, Synthesis, Application, Evaluation
    • Knowledge, Application, Analysis, Comprehension, Synthesis, Evaluation
    • Knowledge, Analysis, Application, Comprehension, Synthesis, Evaluation
    • Knowledge, Comprehension, Application, Analysis, Synthesis, Evaluation

  10. Which of these is not a three dimensional aid?
    • Specimen
    • Poster
    • Mock up
    • Model

  11. Which is the Article beyond the scope of powers conferred under Article 359 of the Constitution?
    • Article 32
    • Article 21
    • Article 25
    • Article 14

  12. The right to education is a right to which age group of children?
    • 5 to 10
    • 6 to 11
    • 6 to 12
    • 6 to 14

  13. Which is the writ prohibit an inferior authority from doing an act which does not fall within its jurisdiction?
    • Prohibition
    • Certiorari
    • Quo-warranto
    • Mandamus

  14. Name the commission which submitted the report on central-state relationship.
    • Mandal Commission
    • Sree Krishna Commission
    • Sarkaria Commission
    • Mukherjee Commission

  15. Which is the fundamental duty demanding for the protection of the environment?
    • 51A (b)
    • 51A (g)
    • 51A (f)
    • 51A (d)

  16. Who presides over the joint session of the parliament to solve the legislative deadlock?
    • President
    • Vice-President
    • Speaker
    • Prime Minister

  17. Which is the second appellate authority in the Right to Information Act?
    • Supreme Court Chief Justice
    • State Information Commission
    • National Human Right Commission
    • State Public Information Officer

  18. What is the name of the employment guarantee programme of the Central Government?
    • MGNREGS
    • NREP
    • RLEGP
    • IRDP

  19. Which is the day observing as 'World Blood Donation Day'?
    • June 14
    • July 14
    • June 22
    • July 26

  20. Environment Protection Act was passed in India in the year
    • 1972
    • 1976
    • 1979
    • 1986

  21. Single entry is a system where
    • Only one aspect is recorded
    • Recording as per convenience
    • Only profit and loss account is prepared
    • None of these

  22. Cash from operation is equal to
    • Net profit plus increase in outstanding expenses
    • Net profit plus increase in debtors
    • Net profit plus increase in stock
    • Net profit plus depreciation

  23. If proposed dividend is treated as a current liability, then payment of dividend is
    • Application of fund
    • Source of fund
    • Both source and application of fund
    • No flow of fund

  24. The accumulated losses under scheme of internal reconstruction are written off against
    • Share capital account
    • Capital reduction account
    • Profit and Loss account
    • Capital reserve account

  25. If rate of gross profit is 20% on cost of goods sold and sales are Rs. 1,00,000, the amount of gross profit will be
    • Rs. 20,000
    • Rs. 25,000
    • Rs. 16,667
    • Rs. 24,000

  26. In case of liquidation of companies debenture holders having floating charge on assets have priority in payment over
    • Secured creditors
    • Unsecured creditors
    • Preferential creditors
    • None of these

  27. Goods worth Rs. 10,000 taken by the proprietor for personal use should be credited to
    • Expense account
    • Sales account
    • Purchase account
    • Drawings account

  28. In accounting, profit prior to incorporation is treated as
    • Revenue reserve
    • Secret reserve
    • General reserve
    • Capital reserve

  29. If the current ratio is 2:1 and working capital is Rs. 60,000, what is the value of the current assets?
    • Rs. 1,20,000
    • Rs. 1,00,000
    • Rs. 60,000
    • Rs. 1,80,000

  30. In India, which of the following is prepared on the guidelines of AS-3 (Accounting Standard-3)?
    • Balance sheet of a company
    • Funds flow statement
    • Cash flow statement
    • Amalgamation statement

  31. Conversion cost is equal to the total of
    • Material cost and factory overhead
    • Direct wages and factory overhead
    • Material cost and selling overhead
    • Material cost and indirect wages

  32. Cost of abnormal idle time is charged to
    • overhead cost
    • respective jobs
    • costing profit and loss account
    • none of these

  33. The concept of 'ideal capacity of plant' as used in cost accounting is its
    • theoretical maximum capacity
    • capacity used for standard setting
    • capacity below which production should not fall
    • best capacity for normal production

  34. Which method of costing is used in undertakings like Electricity, Gas supply and Hospitals?
    • Process costing
    • Operating costing
    • Job costing
    • Batch costing

  35. 1000 units are introduced in a process in which normal loss is 150 units. If actual output is 1000 units, there is
    • abnormal loss
    • normal output
    • no abnormal loss or gain
    • abnormal gain

  36. A budget that gives a summary of all the functional budgets is called
    • Flexible budget
    • Master budget
    • Capital budget
    • Sales budget

  37. Product costs under marginal costing include
    • prime cost only
    • prime cost and fixed overhead
    • prime cost and variable overhead
    • none of these

  38. If the debentures carry interest @ 15% per annum and corporate tax is @ 30%, cost of debt is
    • 10%
    • 15%
    • 7 1/2%
    • 10 1/2%

  39. The discount rate which equates the present value of cash inflows with the present value of cash out outflows is known as
    • Discounted pay back rate
    • Accounting rate of return
    • Internal rate of return
    • Return on investment

  40. Material price variance is a sub variance of
    • material cost variance
    • material mix variance
    • material yield variance
    • material usage variance

  41. ____________ is the process of identifying the source of potential employees and encouraging them to apply for jobs in the organization.
    • Recruitment
    • Selection
    • Training
    • Development

  42. ___________ is an overall and scientific appraisal of the quality of management.
    • Cost audit
    • Controlling
    • Management audit
    • Responsibility accounting

  43. When trainees are attached to senior workers, it is called ___________.
    • Versatile training
    • Refresher training
    • Apprentice training
    • None of these

  44. ____________ is a small group of people who voluntarily perform quality improvement activities at the work place.
    • TQM
    • QC
    • ISO
    • BIS

  45. ___________ refers to the study of forces operating within a group.
    • Group dynamics
    • Group norms
    • Group rolls
    • Group behavior

  46. The name ''Total Quality Management'' was suggested by
    • Joseph M. Juran
    • Philip B. Koshy
    • Nancy Warren
    • Dr. Genichi Taguchi

  47. The process of stimulating people to action is
    • Motivation
    • Leadership
    • Authority
    • Directing

  48. ____________ is the need to fulfill what a person considers to be the mission in his life.
    • Physiological needs
    • Social needs
    • Safety needs
    • Self actualization needs

  49. The training imparted to a new employee to induct him into new social setting of his work is called ____________.
    • Orientation training
    • Job training
    • Corrective training
    • Promotional training

  50. ____________ is the process of matching the qualifications of candidates with the recruitment of jobs to be filled.
    • Training
    • Selection
    • Tests
    • Placement

  51. Rates of income tax are fixed under
    • The Income Tax Act
    • The Finance Act
    • An Ordinance
    • Notification of CBDT

  52. The definition of income is
    • Inclusive
    • Exhaustive
    • Complex
    • Simple

  53. Income accrues in India is assessable for
    • All assesses
    • Resident in India
    • Not ordinarily resident in India
    • Non-resident in India

  54. In which section of the Income Tax Act exempted incomes have been mentioned?
    • Sec. 10
    • Sec. 80
    • Sec. 88
    • Sec. 2

  55. A Govt. employee received salary of Rs. 1,20,000 and entertainment allowance of Rs. 10,000 during the previous year. He spent Rs. 6,000 on entertainment. He is entitled to deduction u/s16(ii)
    • Rs. 10,000
    • Rs. 6,000
    • Rs. 5,000
    • Nil

  56. U/s 44 AB 'Specified date' means
    • 30th June
    • 31st July
    • 31st October
    • 30th November

  57. Rate of depreciation on books other than annual publication is
    • 25%
    • 100%
    • 10%
    • 60%

  58. Remuneration of a partner by way of salary, bonus, commission, etc., is taxable under
    • Income from salary
    • Profits and gains of business or profession
    • Income from other sources
    • None of these

  59. The CBDT works under the Ministry
    • Commerce
    • External Affairs
    • Finance
    • None of these

  60. Tax is charged on the net wealth of an assessee at the rate of
    • 4%
    • 10%
    • 3%
    • 1%

  61. Under___________ approach of system development all the system development activities are done in a sequential order.
    • Top down approach
    • Bottom up approach
    • Prototyping approach
    • Traditional approach

  62. MIS is a __________ system.
    • conceptual system
    • empirical system
    • both conceptual and empirical system
    • none of these

  63. The process of dividing the big complex system into various manageable subsystems is known as ___________.
    • System division
    • System factoring
    • System classification
    • System analysis

  64. Under __________ method both the old and new system will operate in the organisation, until the end users agree to switch over to the new system.
    • Parallel conversion
    • Phased conversion
    • Pilot conversion
    • Plunge conversion

  65. __________ is the process of loosening different subsystems in order to simplify the interconnections between them.
    • Coupling
    • Decoupling
    • Low coupling
    • Tight coupling

  66. The type of DSS in which the decision maker uses statistical simulations to come up with a solution or strategy is known as
    • Knowledge driven DSS
    • Document driven DSS
    • Data driven DSS
    • Model driven DSS

  67. ___________ can be used to transfer files between computers.
    • ITP
    • DTP
    • FTP
    • ISP

  68. Which is the first web browser?
    • Netscape
    • Mosaic
    • Internet Explorer
    • None of these

  69. __________ feedback causes the systems to repeat an adjustment or action.
    • Positive feedback
    • Negative feedback
    • Action feedback
    • Amplifying feedback

  70. Law of requisite variety is propounded by
    • William Albert
    • Albin John
    • Dalz Waltz
    • Ross Ashby

  71. CAC 40 Index is the stock exchange index of which country?
    • France
    • Germany
    • Belgium
    • Brazil

  72. Which of the following is not an exotic option?
    • Lookback option
    • Asian option
    • Barrier option
    • Long option

  73. Candlestick chart method of technical analysis was developed in 1600s by
    • Chinese
    • Japanese
    • Germans
    • Indians

  74. Which of the following is not an assumption of the Capital Asset Pricing Model Portfolio theory?
    • Investors are risk averse
    • Taxes and transactions cost exist in the market
    • Investors are utility maximisers rather than return maximisers
    • All investors have the same time period as the investment horizon

  75. Which of the following is not a formula plan for portfolio revision?
    • Rupee cost average plan
    • Constant rupee plan
    • Fixed rupee plan
    • Constant ratio plan

  76. ___________ investments concentrate on value appreciation of securities and not on the regularity of income.
    • Hub and spoke funds
    • Nest eggs
    • Leverage funds
    • Open-ended funds

  77. Mutual fund which invests mainly in dark horse is _____________.
    • Growth fund
    • Income fund
    • Index fund
    • None of these

  78. ___________ was established in 1990 with an objective to provide an alternate market for the securities of smaller companies.
    • OTCEI
    • NSE
    • BOLT
    • SHCIL

  79. ___________ is a process of fixing price for an issue of securities on a feedback from potential investors based on their perception about a company.
    • Tender method
    • Book building
    • Underwritten placement
    • None of these

  80. Settlement of Forward Delivery contract cannot be done through
    • Liquidation in full
    • Liquidation by payment of difference
    • Carry over to the next settlement
    • None of these

  81. Sweat equity shares are the shares issued to the _______
    • Director or employee of the company at a discount
    • Existing share holders of the company at a discount
    • Govt. where govt. is a majority share holder
    • The public in general at a discount

  82. The 'Balance Scorecard' supplies top managers with a _______ view of business.
    • Long term financial
    • Detailed and complex
    • Simple and routine
    • Fast but comprehensive

  83. _______ is a merger of two or more companies that compete in the same industry.
    • Vertical merger
    • Spin off
    • Horizontal merger
    • Split off

  84. Hewlett-Packard (HP) is the world dominant leader in its laser printer business with high growth and high market share. As per Boston consulting Group (BCG) matrix, HP falls in which one of the following categories?
    • Cash cow
    • Star
    • Dogs
    • Question mark

  85. ________ is a market situation under which there is a single buyer of a product/service.
    • Monopoly
    • Oligopoly
    • Monopsony
    • Oligopsony

  86. The prime focus of 3.0 marketing is ________
    • Value driven marketing
    • Product centric marketing
    • Consumer centric marketing
    • Brand driven marketing

  87. '360' Degree method relates to _______
    • Performance appraisal
    • Organizational culture
    • Employee Morale
    • Retrenchment

  88. The concept of 'Zero Defect' was developed by _________
    • Karou Ishikawa
    • Kinichi Ohmae
    • Philip Crosby
    • None of these

  89. A variable such as activity that causes cost over a given time is _________
    • Cost behavior
    • Cost centre
    • Cost pool
    • Cost driver

  90. Factor Endowment Theory of international trade was initiated by _________
    • J.S. Mill
    • Bertil-Ohlin
    • David Ricardo
    • C.P. Kindleberger

  91. Who were the two disciples of Sree Narayana Guru attended the Vaikom Satyagraha?
    • Sahodaran Ayyappan and T.K. Madhavan
    • Bodhanada Swamikal and Nata Raja Gurukkal
    • Swami Satyavartham and Kottukoikal Velayuddham
    • Swami Anantha Therther and Nata Raja Gurukkal

  92. Who is the author of the book ''Akalathiruttu''?
    • Vaikunda Swamikkal
    • E.V. Ramaswami Naikker
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Chattampi Swami

  93. Which year second Ezhava Memorial was submitted?
    • 1897
    • 1900
    • 1895
    • 1901

  94. The famous woman activist of Kerala Mahila Desa Sevika Sangh was _________.
    • A.V. Kuttimalu Amma
    • Lalithabhika Autharjanam
    • Aryapallam
    • Lalitha Prabhu

  95. Who was the Matryer of Paliyam Satyagraha?
    • A.G. Velayuddhan
    • Paravur T.K. Narayana Pillai
    • K.C.S. Mani
    • T. Subbarayyar

  96. John's disease affects
    • poultry
    • pig
    • sheep and goat
    • cattle

  97. The largest producer of mercury in the world is
    • U.S.A.
    • Spain
    • Canada
    • Italy

  98. The world Ozone day observed on
    • June 26
    • August 29
    • September 16
    • September 21

  99. Who wrote the ''autobiography''?
    • A.V. Kuttimalu Amma
    • Anna Chandi
    • Akkamma Cheriyan
    • None

  100. World Human Rights Day observed on
    • January 12
    • February 28
    • September 21
    • December 10

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