Laboratory Technician Grade II Medical Education 37/2017 Answer Key 05/2018

Medical Laboratory Technology

Post : Laboratory Technician Grade II
Department : Medical Education
Category Code : 37/17
Qualification : Medical Laboratory Technology Course MLT
Question Paper : 05/18
Date of Test : 10-01-2018



  1. The resolution of an Electron microscope is expressed in
    • Millimeters
    • Micrometers
    • Nanometers
    • Centimeters

  2. Which of the following is not a flammable chemical?
    • Ether
    • Xylol
    • Alcohol
    • H2O2

  3. Which of the following is not a carcinogen
    • O-toludene
    • Picric acid
    • Selenite
    • β naphthyl amine

  4. The temperature required for many of the clinical investigations to be done in a laboratory incubator in degree Celsius is
    • 22
    • 42
    • 56
    • 37

  5. Which of the following not comes under moist heat sterilization?
    • Hot air oven
    • Autoclave
    • Pasteurization
    • Tyndalisation

  6. Disposable plastics are sterilized by
    • Alcohol
    • Ethylene oxide
    • Gluteraldehyde
    • Chlorine

  7. A normal solution contains
    • Gram equivalent weight per litre
    • Molecular weight of solute in grams per litre
    • Weight per unit volume
    • None of these

  8. Average urine output of an adult per day
    • 30 – 60 ml
    • 500 – 600 ml
    • 800 – 1400 ml
    • 1000 – 2000 ml

  9. Which of the following is not found in normal urine?
    • Creatinine
    • Uric acid
    • RBC
    • Glucose

  10. Which one of the following is used to test ketone bodies?
    • Rothera's test
    • Diazo test
    • Benzedene test
    • Ehrlich's test

  11. Normal VMA level is
    • Upto 9 mg/24 hour
    • 8 –18 mg/ 24 hour
    • 0.2 –0.5 gm/24 hour urine
    • 100 –250 mg/24 hour

  12. Normal GFR rate is
    • 500 –800 ml/unit
    • 1000 –1500 ml/unit
    • 100 –130 ml/unit
    • None of these

  13. Bloody stool with pus and mucous seen in the following condition except
    • Ulcerative colitis
    • Mucous colitis
    • Bacilliary dysentery
    • Carcinoma of colon

  14. In Amoebiasis, the cyst of Entamoeba histolytica identified from
    • Liver abscess
    • Stool
    • Lung abscess
    • All these

  15. Which of the following parasite has no cystic stage?
    • Giardia lamblia
    • Balantidium coli
    • Trichomonas vaginalis
    • E.histolytica

  16. Multiple ring forms are seen in which type of malaria?
    • Plasmodium malariae
    • Plasmodium vivax
    • Plasmodium falciparum
    • Plasmodium ovale

  17. LD bodies are seen in the Reticulo endothelial system of
    • Human
    • Ruduvid bug
    • Tsetse fly
    • Sand fly

  18. Which of the following parasitic ova is not bile stained?
    • Ascaris lumbricoides
    • Ancylostoma duodenale
    • Trichuris trichura
    • Tinea saginata

  19. The causative agent of “Colabar swelling”
    • W. bancrofti
    • Brugia malayi
    • Loa loa
    • Oncocercus volvulus

  20. Night blood sample is collected for the diagnosis of
    • Malaria
    • Filaria
    • Trypanosoma
    • Leishmania

  21. Casoni’stest is used for the diagnosis of
    • Hydatid disease
    • Leishmaniasis
    • Malaria
    • Filaria

  22. Which one of the parasitic ova seen in urine?
    • Schistosoma haematobium
    • Fasciola hepatica
    • Paragonimus westermani
    • Clonorchius sinensis

  23. The ratio of anti-coagulant and blood used for ESR test is
    • 1 : 2
    • 1 : 4
    • 1 : 8
    • 1 : 16

  24. Normal value of haemoglobin for an adult
    • 4 –6 gm%
    • 6 –8 gm%
    • 8 –10 gm%
    • 12 –15 gm%

  25. Normal platelet count is
    • 4 –5 million/cmm
    • 4000 –11000/cmm
    • 1.5 –3.5 lakhs/cmm
    • 200/cmm

  26. Glass wares containing organic matter are treated with
    • 5% HCl
    • 2% detergent
    • 2% phenol
    • Potassium dichromate

  27. Which of the following is not a Romanowsky stain?
    • Leishman stain
    • Wright stain
    • Giemsa stain
    • Grams stain

  28. The main site of haemopoesis takes place in
    • Liver
    • Spleen
    • Bone marrow
    • Lymphoid tissue

  29. Which of the following condition, the RBCs are microcytic & hypochromic
    • Pernicious anaemia
    • Haemolytic anaemia
    • Iron deficiency anaemia
    • Megaloblastic anaemia

  30. Eosinophilia seen in
    • Allergic conditions
    • Parasitic infections
    • Hodgkin’slymphoma
    • All these

  31. LE cells are not seen in the following condition :
    • Infectious mononucleosis
    • Systemic lupus erythematosus
    • Rheumatoid arthritis
    • Collagen disorders

  32. Which of the following condition shows Bence-Jones protein in urine?
    • Acute myeloid Leukemia
    • Malignant lymphoma
    • Multiple myeloma
    • Chronic myeloid Leukemia

  33. APTT increased in the following condition :
    • Haemophilia
    • Vitamin K deficiency
    • Liver diseases
    • All these

  34. ABO grouping discovered by
    • Robert Koch
    • Karl Landsteiner
    • Paul Ehrlich
    • Antony Van Levenhoek

  35. In a blood bank CPD anti-coagulated blood can be stored at 2 –8 degree celcius for
    • 2 days
    • 14 days
    • 28 days
    • 45 days

  36. CSF protein fractions are evaluated by
    • Colloidal gold test
    • Pandy’stest
    • Rose Jone’stest
    • Protein electrophorosis

  37. In pregnancy, the peak level of HCG in urine seen at
    • 4 weeks of gestation
    • 6 weeks of gestation
    • 10 weeks of gestation
    • 14 weeks of gestation

  38. Cushing syndrome is due to
    • excess production of thyroid hormone
    • excess production of Glucocorticoides
    • excess production of FSH
    • excess production of growth hormone

  39. In obstructive jaundice, which of the following serum enzyme level elevated
    • SGOT
    • SGPT
    • ALP
    • All these

  40. Normal fasting blood glucose level is
    • 50 –80 mg/dl
    • 70 –110 mg/dl
    • 120 –160 mg/dl
    • 180 –220 mg/dl

  41. Serum uric acid level increased in
    • Gout
    • Renal failure
    • Addison’sdisease
    • Rickets

  42. Which of the following elevated enzyme level is not a marker of myocardial infarction?
    • SGOT
    • SGPT
    • LDH
    • Creatine kinase

  43. Increased level of PCO2 seen in
    • Hypoxia
    • Obstructive lung disease
    • Polycythemia
    • Anaemia

  44. TORCH infections are best analysed by
    • Capture ELISA
    • Competitive ELISA
    • Immuno capture ELISA
    • Streptavidin-Biotin ELISA

  45. The best diagnostic assay for infections and autoimmune disease parameters by
    • EIA
    • RIA
    • Fluorescence immuno assay
    • Chemiluminescence assay

  46. Which of the following steps are included in a PCR cycle?
    • Denaturation
    • Annealing
    • Extension
    • All these

  47. Which of the following serological test is specific test for Syphilis?
    • TPHA
    • RPR
    • TRUST
    • VDRL

  48. WIDAL test is for the serological diagnosis of
    • Enteric fever
    • Typhoid fever
    • Para typhoid fever
    • Brucellosis
    Question error

  49. The vector which transmit Dengue fever
    • Culex mosquito
    • Anophilus mosquito
    • Aedes mosquito
    • Mansonia mosquito

  50. Which of the following is not a rapid diagnostic test?
    • Dengue check WB
    • Leptockeck WB
    • PARA MAX-3
    • Brucel-RB

  51. Significant titre of ASO test by latex agglutination is
    • >200 IU/ml
    • <200 IU/ml
    • >10 IU/ml
    • <10 IU/ml

  52. Route of transmission of Hepatitis A virus is by
    • Contaminated food and water
    • Blood transfusion
    • Sexual contact
    • Air

  53. Opportunistic infections associated with AIDS includes
    • Candidiasis
    • Cryptococcosis
    • Cryptosporidiosis
    • All these

  54. Which of the following fixative contains picric acid?
    • Bouin’sfluid
    • Carnoy’sfluid
    • Zenker’sfluid
    • Lugol’ssolution

  55. Frozen sections are obtained from
    • Histokinate
    • Cryostat
    • Microtome
    • None of these

  56. The stain used to detect gycogen by
    • Masson Fontana stain
    • Mucicarmine
    • PAS
    • H and E stain

  57. The most common staining technique used in cytology is
    • Giemsa stain
    • Papani colaou stain
    • H and E stain
    • Shorr’sstain

  58. Tubercle bacillae identified by
    • Robert Koch
    • Louis Pasteur
    • Edward Jenner
    • Joseph Lister

  59. Ziehl - Neelsen stain is used for demonstration of
    • Streptococci
    • Anthrax Bacilli
    • Mycobacteria
    • Spirochaetes

  60. Triple sugar iron agar contains
    • Glucose, Maltose, Sucrose
    • Glucose, Mannitol, Sucrose
    • Glucose, Lactose, Sucrose
    • Glucose, Lactose, Maltose

  61. Blood agar is
    • Enriched media
    • Enrichment media
    • Selective media
    • Differential media

  62. RCM is used for the primary cultivation of
    • Tubercle bacilli
    • Clostridium Perfringens
    • Vibrio cholerae
    • Haemophilus

  63. Which of the following sensitivity test is used to diagnose Group A Streptococci isolate
    • Novobiosin
    • Optochin
    • Bacitracin
    • Polymixin

  64. Elek’stest is used for the invitro toxigenicity of
    • Coryne bacteria diphthreriae
    • Haemophilus influenzae
    • Group B Streptococcus
    • Clostridium Perfringens

  65. Which of the following bacteria shows swarming growth?
    • Salmonella
    • Shigella
    • Pesudomonas
    • Proteus

  66. Example of dimorphic fungi
    • Cryptococcus neoformans
    • Histoplasma Capsulatum
    • Candida albicans
    • Nocardia

  67. Mantoux test is for the diagnosis of
    • Tuberculosis
    • Diphtheria
    • Echinococcus
    • Toxoplasma

  68. Negative staining is used for the demonstration of
    • Capsule
    • Flagella
    • Cell wall
    • None of these

  69. The basic principle behind spectrophotometer is
    • Beer’slaw
    • Lambert’slaw
    • Beer- Lambert law
    • None of these

  70. Which of the following Immunoglobin can cross the placenta
    • IgG
    • IgM
    • IgA
    • IgE

  71. Which of the following condition shows 48XXY chromosomes?
    • Down syndrome
    • Turner’ssyndrome
    • Klinefelter’ssyndrome
    • All these
    Question error

  72. Negri bodies are demonstrated for the diagnosis of
    • Hepatitis
    • HIV
    • Polio
    • Rabies

  73. Electrophoretic separation of major protein is known as
    • Western blotting
    • Southern blotting
    • Northern blotting
    • None of these

  74. Which of the following is non-nucleic acid based diagnostic method?
    • PCR
    • LCR
    • RFLP
    • GLC

  75. Monoclonal antibodies are produced from
    • Myeloma cells
    • Lymphoma cells
    • Hybridoma cells
    • All these

  76. Which of the following is not an automated culture system?
    • BACTEC
    • BaCT/ALERT
    • ESP system
    • Casteneda method

  77. Osmotic fragility test is used for the diagnosis of
    • Sickle cell anaemia
    • Thalassemia
    • Spherocytosis
    • Megaloblastic anaemia

  78. Haemolytic disease of newborn is due to
    • ABO incompatibility
    • Rh incompatibility
    • Leucocyte incompatibility
    • None of these
    Question error

  79. Which of the following automated system is introduced recently?
    • Continuous flow analyser
    • Descrete analyser
    • Centrifugal analyser
    • None of these

  80. Biuret method is used for determination of
    • Protein
    • Sugar
    • Urea
    • Cholesterol

  81. Which river in Kerala mentioned in Kautilya’s“Arthashastra”?
    • Pampa
    • Bharathappuzha
    • Achan kovilar
    • Periyar

  82. The first newspaper in Malayalam “Rajyasamacharam”begin in
    • Thalassery
    • Kozhikode
    • Thiruvananthapuram
    • Kannur

  83. The author of Sanskrit work “Mukundamala”is
    • Rajashekara varma
    • Kulasekhara Alwar
    • Sthanu Ravi
    • Raja Simhan

  84. Name the social reformer held “Kannadi prathishta”first in South India
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Chattambi Swamiakal
    • Vaikunda Swamikal
    • Jyotirao Phule

  85. Who is the first tarriance in Rashtrapathi Bhawan?
    • Lord Curzon
    • Lord Mount Batten
    • Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    • Lord Irwin

  86. The first child friendly police station in Kerala is
    • Chirayinkeezhu
    • Ettumannur
    • Kadavanthra
    • Harippad

  87. Name the first editor of the Newspaper Mathrubhumi is
    • K.P .Kesava Menon
    • P.Ramunni Menon
    • K. Kelappan
    • C.H . Kunhappa

  88. Among the following, who is not related to Malayalee Memorial?
    • C.V. Raman Pillai
    • Dr. Palpu
    • G.P. Pillai
    • K.P.Sankara Menon
    Question error

  89. Who is the first women Judge in the High Court of India?
    • Fathima Beevi
    • Anna Chandi
    • Akkamma Cherian
    • Annie Mascreen

  90. Wagon Tragedy is in
    • 1921 October, 10
    • 1921 August, 20
    • 1921 November, 12
    • 1921 November, 10
    Question error

  91. Who is the minister of Local Self Government in the first E.M.S Ministry 1957?
    • P. K. Chathan Master
    • K. R. GouriAmma
    • T. V. Thomas
    • C. Achutha Menon

  92. The autobiography ‘Jeevithapatha’is
    • Joseph Mundassery
    • Sachidanandan
    • Cherukad
    • Thakazhi

  93. The magazine ‘Keli’is related to
    • Kerala Sahithya Acadamy
    • Kerala Sahithya Pravarthaka Sahakarana Sangham
    • Kerala Sangeetha Nataka Acadamy
    • Kerala Lalithakala Acadamy

  94. The Head Quarter of State Film Development Corporation.
    • Thiruvananthapuram
    • Eranakulam
    • Kozhikode
    • Kochi

  95. Into how many parts, the Constitution of India has been divided?
    • 1
    • 2
    • 3
    • 4

  96. In which item P.U Chithra won the Gold medal in 2017 Asian Athletics Championship in Bhubaneshwar
    • 800 m race
    • 5000 m race
    • 100 m race
    • 1500 m race

  97. A Constitutional bench of Supreme Court consists of
    • 7 Judges
    • 5 Judges
    • 6 Judges
    • 4 Judges

  98. The oldest Newspaper in Malayalam is
    • Kerala Kaumudi
    • Malayala Manoram
    • Mathrubhumi
    • Deepika

  99. World Blood Donor Day is
    • June 12
    • July 14
    • June 14
    • June 20

  100. Name the Malayalee who addressed the presidential speech at Amaravarthi session of INC held in 1897.
    • John Mathai
    • Sir C. Sankaran Nair
    • Mannath Padmanabhan
    • E.M.S.

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