Senior Lecturer in Genito Urinary Surgery Urology 147/2017 Answer Key

Post : Senior Lecturer in Genito Urinary Surgery Urology
Department : Medical Education
Category Code : 147/17
Qualification : Mch (Urology)/Mch/DNB (Genito Urinary Surgery)/ Mch (Genito Urinary Surgery)  + Permanent Registration under State Medical Council
Date of Test : 17-01-2018

1. Cause of congenital pelvi-urteric function obstruction include
   • Presence of an a peristalitic segment of ureter similar to that found in primary obstructive megaureter
   • True ureteral stricture at PUJ, that is congenital
   • Kinks or valves produced by unfolding of ureteral mucosa and musculature
   • All of these
   
   
2. Which of the following is typically associated with organic E. D. in contrast with psychogenic E.D.?
   • Sudden loss of erections
   • Gradual decline in erectile ability
   • Situational erectile difficulty
   • Erection responses on awakening
   
   
3. The structure not located in retro peritoneum is
   • Asending color
   • Adrenal
   • Transverse color
   • Second part of duodenum
   
   
4. All the following are true regarding Germ Cell Tumor (GCT) EXCEPT
   • It occures bilaterally approximately 15% of the time
   • Cryptorchidism is associated with increased risk for GCT
   • Intratubular Germ Cell Neoplasia (ITGCN) is associated with high risk for GCT
   • GCT incidence may be high when there is a family history of Testicular cancer
   
   
5. For minimizing the gap between healthy urethral margins before anastomosis in pelvic fracture urethral injuries, all the following procedures are useful, EXCEPT
   • Excesion of Bucks Facia from corpus spongiosum
   • Mobilising the corpus spongiosum off the corpora cavernosa up to the corona of the glans
   • Dissection of intracrural space down to the pubis
   • Periosteal elevations infra pubectomy
   
   
6. Regarding Bladder Pain Syndrome (BPS)/Interstitial Cystitis all the statements are true EXCEPT
   • A childhood presentation is extremely rare. The average age of onset is 40 years
   • Patients with BPS have a 10 fold higher incidence of childhood voiding problems than do patients without the syndrome
   • Bladder compliance in patients with interstitial cystitis is always abnormal
   • Urine Anti Proliferative Factor (APF) appears to have the highest sensitivity and specificity among the markers studied
   
   
7. Cancer occuring in urinary intestinal diversion is most likely to occure in
   • Uretero sigmoidostomies
   • Ileal conduits
   • Colon conduits
   • Sigmoid conduits
   
   
8. Which of the following is NOT a contra indication for Testosterone supplementation therapy?
   • Cogestive heart failure
   • Polycythemia
   • Breast Cancer
   • Angina pectoris
   
   
9. Health related quality of life is best assesed by
   • Patient themselves
   • Sponses or immediate family members
   • Specialist caring for the patient
   • Specially trained examiners
   
   
10. Transuretero-ureterostomy is contraindicated in
    • Retroperitoneal fibrosis
    • Urothelial malignancy
    • Nephrolithiasis
    • All of these
    
    
11. Hyper calciuria in sarcoidosis is
    • Absorptive hypercalciuria
    • Renal hypercalciuria
    • Recorptive hypercalciuria
    • None of these
    
    
12. Most significant complication of PCNL is
    • Incomplete stone removal
    • Extravasation of irrigation fluid
    • Urinary tract infection
    • Hemorrhage
    
    
13. A characteristic finding in angiomyolipoma is
    • Positive staining for vimentin
    • Unique cytokeratin expression pattern
    • Positive staining for Human Melanoma Black-45 (HMB-45)
    • Occasional aneuploidy
    
    
14. Most common cancer after kidney transplantation
    • Skin
    • Cervix
    • Kaposi sarcoma
    • Thyroid
    
    
15. The ideal site of meision in endo pyelotomy is
    • Anterior
    • Posterior
    • Medial
    • Lateral
    
    
16. The nerve likely to be injured is Psoas hitch is
    • Obturator nerve
    • Ilio hypogastric nerve
    • Genitofemoral nerve
    • Lio inguinal nerve
    
    
17. Indication for radiologic imaging in urologic trauma include all EXCEPT
    • All penetrating trauma
    • High impact rapid deceleration trauma
    • Adult patients with microscopic hematuria without shock
    • All pediatric patients with microscopic hematuria
    
    
18. The stone most unlikely to be fragmented with ESWL
    • Calcium oxalate dehydrate
    • Calcium oxalate monohydrate
    • Struvite
    • Uric acid
    
    
19. The most appropriate treatment for patients with renal tubular acidosis include
    • Thiazides
    • Sodium alkali
    • Potassium alkali
    • Aceto hydroxamic acid
    
    
20. The preferred site of puncture in to the collecting system for PCNL is
    • Upper pole calyx
    • Posterior lower pole calyx
    • Anterior lower pole calyx
    • Upper pole infendibulum
    
    
21. The siglemost important prognostic factor for RCC is
    • Tumor stage
    • Tumor grade
    • Tumor size
    • Histologic subtype
    
    
22. Struvite stones (infection stones) can be produced by all the organisms EXCEPT
    • Proteus
    • Klebsiella
    • E-Coli
    • Staphylococcus
    
    
23. Para neoplastia syndromes in RCC include all the following EXCEPT
    • Hypertension
    • Polycythemia
    • Hepatic dysfunction
    • Hypothyroidism
    
    
24. Most accurate examination to document the presence of bladder stone is
    • Ultrasonography
    • Excretory urography
    • Computed tomography
    • Cystoscopy
    
    
25. Which among the following has best prognosis among renal tumors?
    • Sarcoma
    • Carcinoid
    • Small cell
    • Adult Wilms tomor
    
    
26. The best treatment option for a 9 year old female with right 2 cm renal pelvicstone and cystinuria is
    • Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL)
    • Ureteroscopy with laser Lithotripsy and stone basketing
    • PCNL
    • Anatrophic nephrolithotomy
    
    
27. Which of the following statements is true regarding children with non-neurogenic neurogenic bladder?
    • Constriction of urinary sphincter occures during voiding in a voluntary form of detrusor sphincter dyssyenergia
    • Gradual bladder de-compensation and myogenic failure result from incomplete emptying
    • Gradual bladder de-commpensation and myogenic failure result from increasing amounts of residual urine
    • All of these
    
    
28. The estimated prevalence of vesico ureteric reflux in children with Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) is
    • 3%
    • 5%
    • 10%
    • 30%
    
    
29. The most useful study for the detection of phychonephritis and cortical renal scarring is
    • DTPA scan
    • DMSA scan
    • MAG-3 scan
    • CT urogram
    
    
30. Which of the following is NOT considered a urachal anomaly?
    • Patent urachus
    • Urachal cyst
    • Urethral-urachus fistual
    • Umbulical urachal sinus
    
    
31. Most common intra abdominal injury associated with laperoscopic surgery is
    • Bowel injury
    • Liver injury
    • Vascular injury
    • Bladder injury
    
    
32. Accessory pudental artery usually arise from
    • Obturator artery
    • External liac artery
    • Superior vesical artery
    • Femoral artery
    
    
33. The mycobacteria which does not cause tuberculosis (TB)
    • Mycobacterium bovis
    • Mycobacterium microti
    • Mycobacterium africanum
    • Mucobacterium avium intracellulare
    
    
34. The effect of testosteron includes all the following EXCEPT
    • enhances sexual interest
    • increase frequency of sexual act
    • increases frequency of noct.erections
    • enhances fantasy induced or visually stimulated erections
    
    
35. The gold standard in measuring renal function in children with myelodisplasia is
    • Serum creationine
    • GFR as estimated by the Modification of Diet in Renal Risease (MDRD) equation
    • Serum cystatin
    • Nuclear renography
    
    
36. Pre-ureteral venacava occurs due to the persistence of
    • subcardinal vein
    • supracardinal vein
    • posterior cardinal vein
    • inferior vitelline vein
    
    
37. Regarding ask-upmark kidney, all are ture EXCEPT
    • it is always associated with renal artery intimal disease
    • hypertension and its sequelae like encephalopathy, retinopathy etc are commonest mainfestations
    • segmental vascular anomalies have been cited as the possible cause of hypertension
    • disease is primarily seen in young women and girls
    
    
38. Hypercalcimia in Renal Cell Carcinoma(RCC) can be due to all the following EXCEPT
    • osteolytic metastalic involvement of the bone
    • production of parathyroid hormone like peptide by tumor
    • excessive tubular re-absorption of calcium
    • action of tumor derived 1,25-dihydroxyvitamine D3 and prostaglandins
    
    
39. Drugs used for intravesical instillation in carcinoma urinary bladder include all the following EXcept
    • Bacille Clamette-Guerin (BCG)
    • Cisplatin
    • Mitomycin-C
    • Thiotepa
    
    
40. Bacteriuria without pyuria is indicative of
    • Infection
    • Colonisation
    • Tuberculosis
    • Stones
    
    
41. Blood volume in children is estimated as
    • 55 ml/kg
    • 25 to 50 ml/kg
    • 70-80 ml/kg
    • 65-70 ml/kg
    
    
42. Which of the following groups of antibiotics include the best choice for treating an infected renal cyst in a patient with ADPKD?
    • Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole, chloromphenicol, fluroquinolones
    • Cephalosporins, trimethoprim-sulpha methoxazole doxycycline
    • Gentamycin, cephalosporins, vancomycin
    • Doxycycline, amoxicillin, gentamicin
    
    
43. Which of the following is confirmatory in the diagnosis of tuberous sclerosis?
    • Renal angio myolipoma and multiple renal cysts
    • Hamartomatous rectal polyp and facial adenoma sebaceum
    • Renal angiomyolipoma and cardiac rhabdomyoma
    • Mitral valve prolapse, renal angiolipoma and gingival fibromas
    
    
44. The most common type of retroperitoneal soft tissue sarcoma is
    • Liposarcoma
    • Leiomyosarcoma
    • Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
    • Adrenal myelolipoma
    
    
45. A 24 Fresh (Fr) Foley balloon catheter
    • Measures 24 cm long
    • Measures 8 mm in outer diameter
    • Measures 8 mm in inner diameter
    • Can hold 24 ml of fluid in the balloon
    
    
46. Regarding pre-operative renal artery embolization all are true EXCEPT
    • It can cause shrinkage of arterialised Vena-caval tumor thrombus enabling easy removal
    • It prevents micrometastasis during surgery
    • It facilitates dissetion due to development of tissue plane odema
    • It causes fever, flank pans and nausea us upto 75% of patients
    
    
47. The most consistent segmental branch which supplies nearly 25% of the renal unit is
    • Apical (Superior) segemental artery
    • Anterior superior segmental artery
    • Posterior segmental artery
    • Basilar segmental artery
    
    
48. Which of the following statement is true regarding Vitamin D metabolism?
    • Vitamin D increases renal excretion of calcium
    • Dermally synthesised cholicalciferol must be hydroxylated by both liver and kidney for maximal potency
    • Vitamin D activity is mediated through membrane bound Vitamin D receptors
    • Dermally synthesised cholecalciferol is the most potent form of Vitamin D
    
    
49. Regarding major pelvic urologic surgery all are true EXCEPT
    • Warfarin may be stopped 5 days before the surgery
    • Aspirin and clopidogrel should be discontinued 7 days before surgery
    • Fresh Frozen plasma is not useful in immediate reversal of warfarin and replacement of specific clotting factors
    • Hypothermia results in increased blood loss and increased wound infection
    
    
50. Which of the following statement about cytokine therapy for metastatic Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC) is true?
    • Lymphokine-Activated Killer (LAK) cells augment the efficacy of both interferon α(IFNα) and IL-2
    • The complete response with interferon α monotherapy is 10%
    • The combination of IL-2 and interferone leads to higher overall response rates than either agent alone
    • All these
    
    
51. The most common histology in penile carcinoma is
    • Squamous cell carcinoma
    • Melanoma
    • Verrucous carcinoma
    • Adeno carcinoma
    
    
52. Cause of enteric hyper oxaluria is
    • Excessive oxalate intake
    • Reduced excretion of oxalate
    • Fat malabsorption
    • Increased dietary fat
    
    
53. The only segment of urethra that does not have transitional epithelium is
    • Prostatic urethra
    • Fossa navicularis
    • Bulbar urethra
    • Membraneous urethra
    
    
54. An advantage of supine versus prone position for percutaneous renal surgery is
    • Improved pulmonary mechanics
    • Easier entry in to upper pole calyx
    • Easier entry in to posterior calyx
    • Reduced pressure in the collecting system
    
    
55. Transplant between two siblings who are Histocompatability Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) identical (perfect class I and II match) can be rejected this may be due to
    • Direct antigen presentation
    • Indirect antigen presentation
    • Difference is complement proteins
    • Differences in numbers of circulating platelets
    
    
56. The normal baseline or resting ureteral pressure is
    • 0-5 cm H₂O
    • 5-10 cm H₂O
    • 10-15 cm H₂O
    • 15-20 cm H₂O
    
    
57. The feature associated with worst survival in children with wilms tumor is
    • diffuse tumor spill
    • diffuse anaplasia
    • incomplete tumor resection
    • lung metastasis
    
    
58. The radiographic study most useful to detect renal injury is
    • Intravenous Pyelogram (IUP)
    • Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) of abdomen
    • Focused Assessment with Sonagraphy for trauma (FAST) ultrasound
    • Triphasic abdominal Computed Tomography (CT)
    
    
59. Adolescent urology is defined as the care of patients
    • From 10-19 years old
    • From puberty until death
    • From puberty to 25 years old
    • From 14-25 years old for males and from 12 to 21 years for female
    
    
60. Which of the following is true regarding Mullerian Inhibiting Substance (MIS)?
    • it is secreted by the fetal leydig cells
    • it acts systemically to produce Mullerian regression
    • it functions normally in patients with hernia uteri inguinal
    • it is secreted at 7-8 weeks of gestation representing the initial endocrine function of the fetal testis
    
    
61. The mean age of a child with vaginal rhabdomyosarcoma is
    • younger than 2 years
    • 2-4 years
    • 4-8 years
    • 8-12 years
    
    
62. Hydrocele formation after varicocele ligation is least likely after
    • retroperitoneal ligation
    • subinguinal ligation
    • microscopic inguinal ligation
    • transvenous embolisation
    
    
63. All of the following are true regarding Pollakiuria EXCEPT
    • it may be associated with a history of recent death or life threatening event in the family
    • it is always associated with urinary tract infection or polyuria
    • affected child may have very high day time frequency, even as high as 50 times per day
    • Absence of nocturnal frequency differentiates it from Overactive Bladder (OAB)
    
    
64. Which of the following disease has the highest chance of developing Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC)?
    • Von Hippel-Lindau desease
    • Acquired renal cystic desease
    • Tuferous sclerosis
    • ADPKD
    
    
65. The test with highest sensitivity to detect Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) is
    • Leukocyte esterase
    • Urinary nitrite
    • Urinary nitrate
    • Serum procalcitonin
    
    
66. Antibiotic prophylaxis for a major operation is best
    • Administered 1 hr. before surgery incision
    • Administered the night before surgery
    • Administered following incision
    • Administered immediately ofter completing surgery
    
    
67. Technetium 99 m (99m Te) Dimercapto Succinic Acid (DMSA) is taken up by which renal cell
    • Glomerulus
    • Proximal tubule
    • Distal tubule
    • Collecting tubule
    
    
68. The fetal kidney develops from
    • Paraxial mesoderm
    • Intermediate mesoderm
    • Lateral mesoderm
    • Neural tube
    
    
69. Regarding sipuleucel T vaccine, all the follwing are true, EXCEPT
    • It is a treatment option for patients with minimally or asymptomatic prostate cancer
    • Sipuleucel-T causes marked symptomatic relief in patients with bone pains
    • The drug was approved based onthe survival benefit compared to place bo
    • Sipuleucel-T will not cause any meaningful PSA decline
    
    
70. The non steroidal antiandrogen associated with interstitial pneumonetis and delayed adaption to darkness after exposure to bright illumination
    • Bicalutamide
    • Nilutamide
    • Flutamide
    • Cyproterone acetate
    
    
71. The most common malignant tumor associated with bladder diverticula is
    • Urothelial carcinoma
    • Adeno carcinoma
    • Squamous cell carcinoma
    • Sarcoma
    
    
72. Which of the biomarkers has the greatest specificity for the presence of prostate cancer in patients with elivated PSA?
    • PCA 3
    • TMPRSS 2 : ERG
    • F-PSA
    • 4 Kscore
    
    
73. A fourtyeight years old women who had abdominal hysterotomy 2 months back presents for evaluation of clear vaginal discharge since surgery. Following oval intake of pyridium, her pads continue to have clear watery discharge. The most likely diagnosis is
    • Vesico vaginal fistula
    • Uretero vaginal fistula
    • Peritoneo vaginal fistula
    • Vesico uterine fistula
    
    
74. The key elements of abdominal sacrocolpopexy do NOT include
    • use of permanent monofilamentmesh
    • Secure fixation to the sacral promontory
    • Secure fixation to the vaginal cuff
    • Use of a biologic graft
    
    
75. The consistent advantage of laperoscopic/robotic prostatectomy over open prostatectomy is
    • Less bleeding
    • Less urinary incontinence
    • Preservation of erectle function
    • Less post operative pain
    
    
76. The test with highest positive predictive value in prostate cancer is
    • Digital Rectal Examination (DRE)
    • PSA
    • Transrectal Ultrasonography (TRUS)
    • Human Glandular Kallikrein (hKz)
    
    
77. Significant probability of disease recurrence and risk of secondary graft dysfunction can occure in all the following EXCEPT
    • Chronic glomerulonephritis
    • Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
    • Haemolytic uremic syndrome
    • Primary oxalosis
    
    
78. Foley Y-V pyloplasty is useful in
    • anterior crossing vessel
    • high ureteral insertion
    • redundant renal pelvis
    • small intra renal pelvis
    
    
79. A patient with serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL requires renal angiography. The best way to protect renal function is
    • saline diuresis
    • pre-study mannitol
    • furosemide before study
    • dopamine throughout the study
    
    
80. The most common bacteria causing xantho-granulomatous pylonephritis is
    • E. Coli
    • Proteus mirabilus
    • Pseudomonas
    • Klebsiella
    
    
81. The river in Kerala is known as "yellow river"
    • Bharathapuzha
    • Pampa
    • Kuttiadipuzha
    • Chaliyar
    
    
82. The direction of Kerala, where the Western Ghats is located
    • East
    • West
    • South
    • North
    
    
83. Mahila Samrudhi Yojana Scheme was introduced in the year of
    • 1990
    • 1991
    • 1992
    • 1993
    
    
84. Tsunami is a word of
    • English
    • Japanese
    • Chinese
    • French
    
    
85. Lalgudi Jayaraman is a master of
    • Sitar
    • Violin
    • Tabala
    • Veena
    
    
86. Man made Reservoir Govinda Sagar is situated in
    • Hariyana
    • Punjab
    • Bihar
    • Himachal Pradesh
    
    
87. Kudumbasree was launched on 17th May 1998 in the district of
    • Malappuram
    • Kozhikkode
    • Wayanad
    • Kottayam
    
    
88. The first Muslim President of Indian National Congress (INC) was
    • Maulana Muhammed Ali
    • Hakim Ajmal Khan
    • Badruddin Taiyabji
    • Maulana Abdul Kalam Asad
    
    
89. Among the Chola king who had the title of Madurai Konda
    • Parantaka
    • Rajaraja
    • Rajendra
    • Kalikala
    
    
90. Thalakkal Chandu Mammorial is located at
    • Edakkal
    • Mananthavadi
    • Panamaram
    • Sultan Batheri
    
    
91. Kizhariyoor Bomb case is related with
    • Salt Satyagraha
    • Civil Disobedience Movement
    • Malabar Rebellion
    • Quit India Movement
    
    
92. Name the poetry that is not a work of Kumaranasan
    • Nalini
    • Aksharam
    • Karuna
    • Veenapoovu
    
    
93. Who was called as Lokmanya?
    • Subhash Chandra Bose
    • Gopala Krishna Gokhale
    • Bhagat Sing
    • Bala Gangadhara Tilak
    
    
94. Poykayil Sree Kumara Gurudeva is also known as
    • Chattampi Swamikal
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Kumara Guru
    • Kumaranasan
    
    
95. The first film directed by Adoor Gopalakrishnan is
    • Swayamvaram
    • Olavum Theeravum
    • Athidi
    • Elippathayam
    
    
96. The President of Venezuela is
    • Michel Temer
    • Nicolas Maduro
    • Hugo Chavez
    • Raul Castro
    
    
97. Who was called Mannathu Padmanabhan as the Kerala Madan Mohan Malavya?
    • Mahatma Gandhi
    • Rabindranath Tagor
    • Sardar K. M. Panikkar
    • K. Kelappan
    
    
98. Oval stadium in England is associated with
    • Foot ball
    • Cricket
    • Hockey
    • Golf
    
    
99. Ramnath Kovind, the President of India has saved as the Governor of
    • Bihar
    • West Bengal
    • Orissa
    • Maharashtra
    
    
100. Narasimham committee is associated with
     • Film
     • Industry
     • Tax
     • Banking