Senior Lecturer in Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Medical Education 154/2017 Answer Key

surgery

Post : Senior Lecturer in Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
Department : Medical Education
Category Code : 154/17
Qualification : Mch (Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery)/ M.ch/DNB (plastic Surgery) + Permanent Registration under State Medical Council
Date of Test : 16-01-2018



  1. Lesions in the oral cavity having high potential for malignant transformation are all of the following except
    • Erthroplakia
    • Speckled erythroplakia
    • Chronia hyperplastic candidiasis
    • Oral lichen planus

  2. Most common site of hypospadias is
    • Coronal
    • Penile
    • Scrotal
    • Perineal

  3. The most accepted mechanism of wound contraction is attributed to
    • Fibroblast
    • Myofibroblast
    • Collagen
    • Cell division

  4. The function of Z-plasty is
    • To lengthen a scar
    • To break up a straight line
    • To change the direction of scar
    • All of these

  5. The first instrument built specifically for harvesting of skin graft was developed by
    • Humby
    • Reverdin
    • Padget
    • Blair

  6. Primary contraction is more in
    • Thin split thickness graft
    • Intermediate split thickness graft
    • Thick split thickness graft
    • Full thickness graft

  7. In proliferative phase, which type of collagen is laid down?
    • Type I
    • Type II
    • Type III
    • Type IV

  8. Commonest nerve for nerve graft is
    • Common peroneal nerve
    • Sural nerve
    • Deep peroneal nerve
    • Musculocutaneous nerve

  9. Oral cavity proper contains all except
    • Floor of mouth
    • Hard palate
    • Posterior 1/3 tongue
    • Anterior 2/3 of tongue

  10. Precursor skin lesions may be present in all the following cutaneous malignancies except
    • Squamous cell carcinoma
    • Basal cell carcinoma
    • Melanoma
    • Angiosarcoma

  11. Necrolytic migrating erythemous dermatitis is feature of
    • Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
    • Verner-Morrison syndrome
    • Glucagonoma syndrome
    • Insulinoma

  12. The neo-epidermis of a scar of healed wound avulses easily and is more fragile than normal skin because of
    • Deficiency of collagen in scar
    • Increased fibroblasts at site
    • Increased capillary network
    • It is devoid of rete pegs

  13. PET scan detect malignant lesion by picking up
    • Areas of increased vascularity
    • Areas of hypermetabolic activity
    • Areas of tissue necrosis
    • Areas of microcalcification

  14. Out of the following, which one is usually not an axial pattern flap?
    • Inter polation flap
    • Forehead flap
    • Deltopectoral flap
    • Groin flap

  15. Following are the flaps that rotate about a pivot point, except
    • V-Y advancement flap
    • Interpolation flap
    • Rotation flap
    • Transposition flap

  16. Following requirements are essential for a Limberg's flap except
    • The adjacent skin should be loose
    • The defect may be in any shape
    • The opposing angles are of equal size
    • It should have angles of 60 and 120 degree

  17. In Z-Plasty 100 perent theoretical gain in length is achieved with angles of
    • 45-45
    • 60-60
    • 75-75
    • 90-90

  18. In the Mathes and Nahai classification Pectoralis Major and Latissimus Dorsi Muscles belong to
    • Type II
    • Type III
    • Type I
    • Type V

  19. The classification of nerve injuries was originally proposed by
    • Sunderland
    • Seddon
    • Mackinnon
    • Myckatyn

  20. The most aggressive type of Basal Cell carcinoma is
    • Nodular
    • Superficial
    • Morpheaform
    • Pigmented

  21. Which of the following statements is not true for Marjolin's ulcer?
    • It is a squamous cell carcinoma
    • It develops in an area of chronic inflammation and scarring
    • It carries a risk of metastasis of nearly 50%
    • It does not spread to regional lymphnodes

  22. Not true for Groin Flap
    • It is a hairy flap
    • It is an axial flap
    • It is based on superficial circumflex iliac artery system
    • Usually the donor defect is closed primarily

  23. The surgical technique of total excision of lymphoedematous tissue and skin grafting is known as
    • Thompson procedure
    • Sistrunk's operation
    • Homan's procedure
    • Charle's procedure

  24. Tarsal tunnel syndrome presents as symptoms of compression of
    • Common peroneal nerve
    • Superficial peroneal nerve
    • Posterior tibial nerve
    • Deep peroneal nerve

  25. According to Gustilo classification, the compound fracture of tibia with soft tissue loss and exposed bone is labeled as
    • Type II
    • Type III B
    • Type III
    • Type III A

  26. In carcinoma breast patient absolute contraindications to breast conservation are the following except
    • Multiple ipsilateral lesions
    • Diffuse suspicious microcalcifications
    • Steroid dependent collagen vascular disease
    • Radiation induced

  27. True statements for botulinum toxin A are the following except
    • Clinically the beneficial effects of the toxin are apparent for more than one year
    • Injection of botulinum toxin A are the most frequently performed cosmetic procedure in the United States
    • Dr. Alan Scott, and ophthalmologist, pioneered the use of botulinum toxin A in humans
    • It has been successfully used to treat spasn of sphimeter of Oddi

  28. Level VI cervical nodes drain the following except
    • Thyroid
    • Glothic/Subglothic Larynx
    • Pyriform sinus apex
    • Naso phanynx

  29. Following are the signs and symptoms of fracture except
    • Absence of stepping in the infraorbital margin
    • Asymmetry of the malar region
    • Anaesthesia in the infraorbital region
    • Presence of trimus

  30. Unilateral cleft lip result from failure of fusion of
    • Lateral nasal process and maxillary prominence
    • Median nasal process and maxillary prominence
    • Median nasal process and mandibular process
    • None of these

  31. Which of the following is not true for a patient seeking lower lid blepharoplasty?
    • A Schirmer I test showing less than 10 mm at 5 minutes would be a relative contra indication
    • A 'snap' test should always be performed
    • Excess skin below the level of the orbital margin is usually corrected by lower lid blepharoplasty
    • Blindness is a rare but recognised complication

  32. Le fort II facial fracture, by definition involves
    • The orbital floor always
    • The orbital floor sometimes
    • The cribriform plate always
    • All of these

  33. Common findings in submucus cleft are the following except
    • A bifid uvula
    • Velophayngeal in sufficiency
    • A notched posterior hard palate
    • Muscular diastasis of the velum

  34. In complete bilateral cleft of the lip and palate, the protruding premaxilla is attached to
    • Right palatal shelve
    • Left palatal shelve
    • Vomerine bone
    • Ethmoid bone

  35. In Pierre Robin sequence, the cleft palate should be repaired
    • At 9 months
    • At 12 months
    • At 15 months
    • Repair is delayed as compared to other cleft palate closures

  36. In the repair of cleft lip, upper lip Z-plasty is included in
    • Rose Thompson repair
    • Millard's repair
    • Randall Tennison repair
    • Skoog repair

  37. Following statements are true for Carpenter syndrome, except
    • Head is asymmetric
    • It is not a genetic disorder
    • Presence of partial syndactyly of digits
    • Preaxial polysyndactyly of the feet

  38. Not true for teacher Collins syndrome
    • Unilateral hypoplasia of the body and arch of zygoma
    • Significantly increased facial convexity
    • Mandibular hypoplasia
    • External and middle ear anomalies

  39. Following signs and symptoms are commonly present in zygomatic fractures, except
    • Trismus
    • Involvement of infraorbital nerver
    • Enophthalmos
    • Increased malar prominence

  40. Vertically favourable fracture of the mandible should usually be treated with
    • Rigid fixation using plate and screws
    • Interosseous wiring
    • Interdental wiring
    • Mandibulo-maxillary fixation

  41. Usually the plane of cleavage of scalp avulsion is
    • Subcutaneous layer
    • Galer aponeurotica
    • Loose areolar tissue
    • Subperiosteal layer

  42. The largest vessel supplying the scalp are
    • Supratrochlear arteries
    • Supraorbital arteries
    • Superficial temporal arteries
    • Occipital arteries

  43. True for scalp skin, except
    • It is the thickest skin on the body
    • Thickness ranges between 3 and 8 mm
    • Beneath the skin lies the subcutaneous tissue layer, which contains follits
    • It is not connected to the galea aponeurotica

  44. Following statements are true for the galea aponeurotia in the scalp except
    • It is part of a broad fibromuscular layer that envelops the forehead and scalp
    • It serves as the central tendinous confluence of the occipital muscle posteriorly and frontalis muscle anteriorly
    • It does not have any attachment to the overlying skin
    • It is continuous with the tempro parietal fascia

  45. Most common site of fracture of mandible is
    • The neck of the condyle
    • Angle of the mandible
    • In the region of the canine teeth
    • Symphysis menti

  46. Craniofacial dysjuction is seen in fracture maxilla type
    • Le Fort I
    • Le Fort II
    • Le Forte III
    • Vertical Fracture

  47. Not true for blow out fractures of the orbit
    • Presence of Enoplthalmous
    • Diplopia
    • Restriction of upward rotation of robit
    • Presence of fracture in the inforaobital rim

  48. Which answer is true regarding structural fatgrafting?
    • It should never be used in the nose
    • It can be used to augment midface hypoplasia
    • It cannot be used for breast augmentation without the Brava® device
    • HIV is an absolute contraindication

  49. Commonest cause of Burns in Children <5 years old
    • Electric
    • Flame
    • Scalds
    • Chemical

  50. High voltage electric burn is when the voltage is
    • ≥ 220 V
    • ≥ 1000 V
    • ≥ 11000 V
    • ≥ 33000 V

  51. Amount of fluid used for resuscitation in Burn patient using parkland formula is
    • 1 ml/kg/% TBSA
    • 2 ml/kg/% TBSA
    • 3 ml/kg/% TBSA
    • 4 ml/kg/% TBSA

  52. Traditional classification of hemorrhagic shock a blood loss 30-40% is labled as
    • Class I shock
    • Class II shock
    • Class III shock
    • Class IV shock

  53. Complications of massive blood transfusion include all except
    • Coagulopathy
    • Hypocalcemia
    • Hyperkalemia
    • Hyperthermia

  54. In major acute burn patients, changes in glucose metabolism include
    • Increased serum glucose and increased serum insulin
    • Increased serum glucose and decreased serum insulin
    • Decreased serum glucose and increased serum insulin
    • Decreased serum glucose and increased serum insulin

  55. The rule 9s for the extent of surface area involvement in burns was described by
    • Thiersch
    • Parkland
    • Wallance
    • Evans

  56. Analgesic of choice for acute burn is
    • Oral NSAID
    • IV NSAID
    • IV OPIATES
    • None of these

  57. Burn injury to skin, subcutaneous fat into underlying muscle or bone is classified as
    • II degree burn
    • IV degree burn
    • III degree burn
    • V degree burn

  58. All are resuscitation formula used for calculating fluid requirement in burn patients except
    • Parkland formula
    • Berknow formula
    • Galveston formula
    • Brooke formula

  59. Deep partial thickness burns will heal in
    • 7-10 days
    • 10-14 days
    • 14-21 days
    • More than 21 days with contractures

  60. Full thickness burns are characterised by the following except
    • Presence of blisters
    • Brown, black surface
    • Leathery look
    • Insensate

  61. Suggested 'ideal' breast measurements in the context of inferior pedicle breast reduction surgery do not include
    • Sternal notch to nipple distance of 21 cm
    • Inter-nipple distance 21 cm
    • The nipple to inframammary fold distance of 3.4 cm
    • Areolar diameter 4 cm

  62. In the management of chemical burns, the following first aid should be done except
    • Removal of the inciting agent
    • Contaminated clothes should be removed
    • Neutralization of the inciting agent should be done
    • Affected skin should be copiously irrigated with water

  63. Clinodactyly and camptodactyly are examples of
    • Failure of formation of parts
    • Failure of differentiation or separation of parts
    • Duplication
    • Overgrowth

  64. Most common type of thumb duplication is
    • Bifid distal phalanx
    • Duplicated distal phalanx
    • Bifid proximal phalanx
    • Duplicated proximal phalanx

  65. Following statements are true for macrodactyly, except
    • Single or multiple digits can be involved
    • The little finger is most frequently affected
    • The defect is more common in males
    • Majority of cases are unilateral

  66. True for Dupuytren's disease except
    • It is the development of scar tissue in the palm and digits
    • The scar tissue contains normally occurring type 1 collagen
    • The cords of scar result in the contraction of the metacarpophalangeal joints
    • It may result inpseudo boutonniere deformity

  67. Absolute contraindication to replantation is
    • Patient's advanced age
    • Avulsion injuries
    • Multiple injuries within the amputation part
    • Prolonged warm ischaemia time

  68. The most frequent indication for tendon transfer is
    • Poliomyelitis
    • Paralysis of healthy muscle, usually from nerve injury
    • Treating spastic disorders
    • Injury to the muscles

  69. Strong contraindications to elective thumb reconstruction include the following except
    • Significant vascular disease
    • Short life expectancy
    • Unreconstructable sensory loss
    • High patient expectations

  70. True for carpal tunnel syndrome, except
    • It is a neurological disorder median nerve
    • It is typically first manifested by numbers of the middle finger and adjacent side of the ring finger
    • It occurs more frequently among women
    • As the duration increases numbers extends into the thumb and index finger

  71. Kaplan's cardinal line is formed by
    • Palmer creases of hand
    • A line draw from the apex of the first web space to the edge of pisciform bone
    • A draw from hook of hallmark to pisciform bone
    • Life lines on ulnar aspect of hand

  72. Felon is
    • Parona's space infection
    • Also known as pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis
    • Subcutaneous abscess of the distal pulp of finger
    • Deep palmer arch infection

  73. Which zone of hand is also known as 'no man's land'?
    • Zone II flexor tendon system
    • Zone II extensor tendon system
    • Zone IV extensor tendon system
    • Zone IV flexor tendon system

  74. In the process of breast implant selection, the following are important except
    • Soft tissue quality
    • Bra and cup size
    • Implant volume
    • Implant shape

  75. Kienbock disease is
    • Avascular necrosis of lunate
    • Avascular necrosis of hook of hamate
    • Avascular necrosis of neck of femur
    • Avascular necrosis of capitates

  76. Which of the test is done for median nerve injury?
    • Forments test
    • Jeanne's sign
    • Wartenberg's sign
    • None of these

  77. Dominant pedicle to Tensor Fascial lata is
    • Ascending branch of deep femoral circumflex artery
    • Branch from obdurate artery
    • Descending branch of inferior epigastria artery
    • Ascending branch of lateral femoral circumflex artery

  78. The anterolateral thigh perforator flap in first reported by
    • Mathes and Nahai
    • Beck and Song
    • Mcgreger
    • H. Gilles

  79. Thoracdorsal artery perforater flap was first described by
    • Angrigiani
    • Bakamjian
    • PC Neligan
    • Song

  80. Singapore flap technique used reconstruction of which structure?
    • Penis
    • Vagina
    • Scrotun
    • Pressure ulcer defect

  81. The Kerala river mentioned in the Arthasatra of Kautilya
    • Pamba
    • Achankovilaru
    • Bharathapuzha
    • Periyar

  82. The author of Mukunthamala
    • Kalidasa
    • Panini
    • Pathanjali
    • Kulasekara Alwar

  83. Name of the first Geoinformatic Panchayath in Kerala
    • Narikkuni
    • Kalpakanchery
    • Aruvikkara
    • Meppadi

  84. The largest producer of rice
    • Indonesia
    • India
    • China
    • America

  85. Present Chief Election Commissioner of India
    • Naseem Saidi
    • A. Sambath
    • T. Krishnamachari
    • Achalkumar Jyothi

  86. The last Indian state which accepted GST
    • Jammu and Kashmir
    • Kerala
    • Assam
    • Tamil Nadu

  87. The west flowing rivers is one of the following
    • Narmada
    • Kaveri
    • Krishna
    • Godavari

  88. The hilly areas of northeastern state bordering the Myanmar is known as
    • Sivalic
    • Purvanchal
    • Himadri
    • Himachal

  89. The rainy season starts in Tamil Nadu during the winter season. The main reason is
    • Southwest monsoon
    • Temperate cyclone
    • Northeast monsoon
    • Local winds

  90. One of the soils in Kerala formed due to alternate hot and wet season
    • Alluvial soil
    • Red soil
    • Black soil
    • Laterite soil

  91. Nebular theory is connected with
    • Immanuel Kant
    • Edwin Hubble
    • Sir Harold Jeffry
    • Sir James Jean

  92. The only one classical dance which includes cultural aspect of Hindus and Muslims
    • Oddissi
    • Kathak
    • Satriya
    • Kuchuppudi

  93. The birthplace of Tunchat Ezhuthachan
    • Kaladi
    • Trissivapperur
    • Tirur
    • Ponnani

  94. Name the Indian city which is recently declared world heritage site by UNESCO
    • Allahabad
    • Old Delhi
    • Calicut
    • Ahmedabad

  95. The residence name of S. K. Pottakkad
    • Chandrakantham
    • Sankaramangalam
    • Indeevanam
    • Sadgamaya

  96. The poet known as Mahakavi of Mappilappatu and the author of 'Badarul Muneer and Husnul Jamal'
    • Baburaj
    • V. M. Kutty
    • Moinkutty Vaidyar
    • Nor Muhammed

  97. The viral disease which affects lungs
    • Dengue
    • H1N1
    • Weils disease
    • Chikkunguinia

  98. The founder of Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangam
    • Ayyankali
    • Chattambi Swamikal
    • Vagbatananta
    • Veluthambi

  99. Sree Nayayana Guru consecrated a Siva idol in 1888 by shocking the orthodox section at
    • Mannanam
    • Aruvippuram
    • Vaikom
    • Paliam

  100. The movement of Vakkom Abdul Khader Moulavi is
    • Muslim league
    • Malabar Muslim Sabha
    • Muslim Service Society
    • Travencore Muslim Maha Jana Sabha

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