Higher Secondary School Teacher Chemistry Answer Key 33/2018

Post : Higher Secondary School Teacher Chemistry
Department : Higher Secondary School Education
Category Code : 127/2017, 333/2017
Qualification : B.Ed Degree in Chemistry; Master's Degree in Chemistry; Must have passed the State Eligibility Test for the post of Higher Secondary School Teachers conducted by Government of Kerala or by the agency authorized by the State Government
Question Paper Code : 33/18
Date of Test : 26-02-2018

1. The approximate ratio of the peaks at m/z values 98, 100 and 102 in the mass spectrum of 1, 2 - dichloroethane will be :
   • 3 : 1 : 1
   • 9 : 6 : 1
   • 1 : 2 : 1
   • 1 : 1 : 2
   
   
2. The Bonding in metal carbonyls can be identified using :
   • UV spectroscopy
   • IR spectroscopy
   • C¹³ NMR
   • None of these
   
   
3. Magnetic moment of [Co(H₂O)₆]²⁺ is approximately :
   • 2.5 BM
   • 5.3 BM
   • 3.9 BM
   • None of these
   
   
4. Quarter life for a first order reaction will be equal to :
   • ln 2/k
   • ln 0.4/k
   • ln 5/k
   • ln 4/k
   
   
5. Angle between (110) and (100) planes in a simple cubic crystal lattice is equal to :
   • 15
   • 60
   • 45
   • None of these
   
   
6. Number of protons in the shielded zone of 18 - annulene is :
   • 6
   • 3
   • 5
   • 2
   
   
7. Silicates with continuous 3D framework :
   • Neso silicates
   • Phyllo silicates
   • Tecto silicates
   • None of these
   
   
8. Packing fraction of a hcp lattice is close to :
   • 0.74
   • 0.98
   • 0.52
   • None of these
   
   
9. Effective number of Zn and S²⁻ ions in ZnS crystal are :
   • 8, 4
   • 4, 4
   • 4, 8
   • None of these
   
   
10. Absorbance of a solution whose transmittance is 50% is :
    • 0.699
    • 0.301
    • 1.301
    • 1.699
    
    
11. Indicator used in the Mohrs method is :
    • Fluorescein
    • Eosin
    • Ferroin
    • Chromate
    
    
12. Number of bridging carbonyls in Ir₄(CO)₁₂ at low temp. is :
    • 3
    • 9
    • 6
    • 0
    
    
13. Term symbol for B is :
    • ³P_3/2
    • ²P_3/2
    • ¹P_3/2
    • ³P_5/2
    
    
14. [X ,d/dx]=
    • −1
    • 1
    • 0
    • 2
    
    
15. Complexes formed by the lanthanides with hindered β-diketonates can be separated by :
    • Gel permeation chromatography
    • Gas chromatography
    • Gel filtration chromatography
    • Ion exchange chromatography
    
    
16. Structure of [C₂B₉H₁₂]^-
    • Closo
    • Arachno
    • Nido
    • Hypho
    
    
17. Ground state term symbol of Co in [CoF₆]³⁻ is :
    • ⁴F
    • ⁴D
    • ³F
    • ⁵D
    
    
18. Rate of an enzyme catalysed reaction is 0.02 mol/dm³ and the rate is halved when the concentration of substrate is 20 mg/dm³. The ratio K₁/K₋₁ will be .......... assuming K₂ >> K₋₁.
    • 0.5 dm³/mg
    • 2 dm³/mg
    • 0.2 dm³/mg
    • 0.05 dm³/mg
    
    
19. Jmax for a rigid diatomic molecule with rotational constant 1.566 cm^-1 at 300 K is :
    • 8
    • 6
    • 5
    • 4
    
    
20. Temperature effect of schottky defect is given by :
    • e^E/2KT
    • e^−E/KT
    • e^E/KT
    • e^−E/2KT
    
    
21. The degeneracy of the energy level of a particle in cubic box with quantum numbers n_x=3, n_y=2, n_z=1 :
    • 6
    • 3
    • 1
    • 2
    
    
22. Rotational entropy is maximum for :
    • H₂
    • N₂
    • Cl₂
    • O₂
    
    
23. No. of ways in which four indistinguishable particles may be assigned to three states having Energy 1, 2 and 3 such that total energy remains 10 units is :
    • 5
    • 10
    • 6
    • 4
    
    
24. Value of ∆G for adsorption __________ with increase in temperature.
    • Becomes more positive starting from a negative value
    • Becomes more negative starting from a negative value
    • Becomes more negative starting from a positive value
    • None of these
    
    
25. Catalyst used in Wackers process :
    • SnCl₄
    • [PtCl₄]²⁻
    • [CoCl₄]²⁻
    • [PdCl₄]²⁻
    
    
26. Co-catalyst used in Wackers process :
    • Co
    • Cu
    • Mo
    • Ag
    
    
27. Which of the following thermal sigmatropic rearrangement is impossible?
    • [1, 5]H
    • [1, 7]H
    • [1, 3]H
    • None of these
    
    
28. Example for a nidoborane is :
    • B₄H₁₀
    • B₅H₉
    • [B₆H₆]²⁻
    • B₅H₁₁
    
    
29. C-H stretching vibration of acetylene occurs at around :
    • 3000 cm⁻¹
    • 2900 cm⁻¹
    • 2300 cm⁻¹
    • 3400 cm⁻¹
    
    
30. The activation energy for disappearance of A for the following reaction is :
    
    • (K1E1+K2E2)/(K1+K2)
    • (K1E2+E2E1)/(K1+K2)
    • K1(E1+E2)/K2
    • None of these
    
    
31. Hot bands in IR spectrum is a consequence of which of the following transitions?
    • v=0 → v=2
    • v=1 → v=2
    • v=0 → v=1
    • v=0 → v=3
    
    
32. The mass spectrum of an alkyl halide showed M and M+2 peaks in the intensity ratio 1 : 1. The compound is :
    • alkyl chloride
    • alkyl bromide
    • alkyl iodide
    • cannot be predicted
    
    
33. The number of peaks expected in the proton decoupled CMR spectrum of toluene is :
    • 7
    • 6
    • 5
    • 2
    
    
34. The density of an FCC crystal (0.2 kg of the element contains 24×10²³ atoms) with unit cell parameter 2 Å is :
    • 4.17×10⁷ kg/ms
    • 4.17×10⁴ kg/ms
    • 4.17×10²³ kg/ms
    • 41.7×10⁴ kg/ms
    
    
35. Rotational partition function for H₂ at 0ºC is approximately :
    • 10
    • 15
    • 1.5
    • 3.5
    
    
36. Which of the following is not a feasible term symbol for [Ne]2p¹, 3p¹ configuration?
    • ³D₂
    • ³D₃
    • ³D₁
    • ²D₃
    
    
37. Determination of CFSE of transition metal complexes can be done using __________ spectroscopy.
    • Electronic
    • Rotational
    • ESR
    • NMR
    
    
38. The vapour phase irradiation of trans 1, 2 - dimethyl cyclohexanone will give :
    • cis-1, 2-dimethyl cyclopentane
    • trans-1, 2-dimethyl cyclopentane
    • cis and trans 1, 2-dimethyl cyclohexane
    • Mixture of "cis-1, 2-dimethyl cyclopentane" and "trans-1, 2-dimethyl cyclopentane"
    
    
39. Photochemical isomerisation of trans stilbene to cis isomer can be effected in presence of :
    • (C₆H₅)₂C=O
    • (CH₃)₂C=O
    • (C₆H₅)₂CH₂
    • None of these
    
    
40. When aqueous solvents are to be used in IR spectroscopy, sample and reference cells are made of :
    • CaCl₂
    • CaF₂
    • NaCl
    • KCl
    
    
41. Natural rubber can be distinguished from butyl rubber by an IR spectral peak around :
    • 1200 cm₋₁
    • 1600 cm₋₁
    • 2600 cm₋₁
    • None of these
    
    
42. Enantioselective epoxidation of allylic alcohols can be achieved by :
    • Al-isopropoxide
    • Sn-isopropoxide
    • Ti-isopropoxide diethyl tartarate
    • None of these
    
    
43. The shape of CLF⁺₂ is :
    • Angular
    • Linear
    • Triagonal
    • None of these
    
    
44. The residual entropy associated with a crystal with 6 possible orientations will be nearly :
    • 10
    • 1.5
    • 15
    • 3.5
    
    
45. The point group of 1, 1-difluoroethylene is :
    • C_3v
    • C_∞v
    • C_2v
    • C_3h
    
    
46. For the reaction A→ B → C, where k₁=5×10⁶ s⁻¹ and k₂=3×10⁶ s⁻¹, time at which [B] is maximum is :
    • 2.6×10⁻⁷ s
    • 1.1×10⁻⁷ s
    • 2.55×10⁻⁶ s
    • 2.55 s
    
    
47. The number of radial nodes for 4s orbital of hydrogen atom is :
    • 0
    • 4
    • 3
    • 2
    
    
48. The number of metal-metal bonds in Ir₄(CO)₁₂ and Fe₃(CO)₁₂ are respectively :
    • 6, 3
    • 3, 6
    • 6, 4
    • 4, 6
    
    
49. The magnetic moment of a six co-ordinate transition metal complex is approximately 6 BM. Identify the complex if it is both ESR and Mossbauer active.
    • [Mn(H₂o)₆]²⁺
    • [Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺
    • [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺
    • [Fe₆]^3-
    
    
50. Lability of the ions, Cr²⁺, V²⁺, Mn²⁺ follow the order :
    • Cr²⁺ < V²⁺ < Mn²⁺
    • Mn²⁺ > Cr²⁺ > V²⁺
    • Cr²⁺ > V²⁺ > Mn²⁺
    • V²⁺ > Cr²⁺ > Mn²⁺
    
    
51. The normalization constant of the equation, Φ_m(ϕ)=B_me^imϕ is :
    • 1/2π
    • 1/π
    • 1/√2π
    • 1/√π
    
    
52. The CFSE of [Ti(H₂O)₆]³⁺ having a λ_max 492 nm is :
    
    • 8130
    • 20325
    • 10162
    • None of these
    
    
53. The structures in which n and (n−1) corners of n-cornered polyhedrons are occupied are respectively :
    • closo and nido
    • nido and closo
    • closo and arachno
    • nido and arachno
    
    
54. The conversion of vinyl cyclopropane to cyclopentene upon heating is an example of __________ sigmatropic rearrangement.
    • [1, 5]
    • [3, 3]
    • [1, 3]
    • [1, 2]
    
    
55. Minimum intensity of absorption in the UV-visible region will be shown by :
    • [Cr(H₂O)₆]²⁺
    • [V(H₂O)₆]²⁺
    • [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺
    • [Co(H₂O)₆]²⁺
    
    
56. Expected number of lines in the ESR spectrum of benzene radical anion is :
    • 6
    • 4
    • 7
    • 0
    
    
57. Depolarisation by hydrogen ions can be prevented by use of :
    • Nitrate ions
    • Hydrazine
    • Hydroxylamine
    • All of these
    
    
58. Current observed in the absence of an electroactive species is termed :
    • Residual current
    • Faradaic current
    • Diffusion current
    • None of these
    
    
59. The decadic absorbance of a solution at a wavelength 200 nm is recorded as 1.08. Given the values of molar extinction co-efficient and path length to be 629 m²/mol and 0.00121 m, the concentration of the solution is :
    • 0.142 M
    • 1.42 M
    • 0.00142 M
    • 0.0142 M
    
    
60. The configuration of the compound is :
    
    • 2S, 3R
    • 3R, 2S
    • 2S, 3S
    • 2R, 3R
    
    
61. Average position of a particle in a one dimensional box of length L is :
    • L/3
    • L
    • 2L
    • L/2
    
    
62. Ground state energy for an electron confined to a potential well of width 0.4 nm is :
    • 226.7 kJ/mol
    • 22.6 kJ/mol
    • 3.76 kJ/mol
    • None of these
    
    
63. The lowest energy band in the absorption spectrum of [Ni(ethylene diamine)3]2+ :
    • ³T_2g ← ³A_2g
    • ³T_1g ← ³A_2g
    • ⁴A_2g ← ³T_2g
    • None of these
    
    
64. The symmetry elements of chair form of cyclohexane are :
    • E, C₂, C₃, σ_v
    • E, C₂, C₃, σ_d
    • E, C₃, σ_v, σ_d
    • E, C₂, C₆, σ_d
    
    
65. Which among the following are allowed transitions?
    • 1s → 2p
    • 2p → 3s
    • 3d → 4f
    • all of these
    
    
66. Which among the following is Mossbauer inactive?
    • ⁵⁷Fe
    • ⁶⁷Zn
    • ¹¹⁹Sn
    • ¹²¹Sb
    Question error
    
    
67. The nuclear partition function of ortho deuterium molecule is :
    • 3
    • 2
    • 6
    • None of these
    
    
68. The shape of [TeF₅]− ion based on VSEPR theory is :
    • Octahedral
    • Square pyramidal
    • Pentagonal
    • Triagonal bipyramidal
    
    
69. According to the transition state theory, the rate constant of a reaction __________ with pressure when ∆V* is negative.
    • Decreases
    • Increases
    • Remains unaltered
    • First decreases and then increases
    
    
70. The hybridization in Zeise’s salt is :
    • dsp²
    • sp³d
    • sp²d
    • None of these
    
    
71. “It is always better to begin with the children see, feel and experiment, than arguing and generating”. To which maxim of teaching this statement is related?
    • Empirical to Rational
    • Macro to Micro
    • Particular to General
    • Simple to Complex
    
    
72. Which of the following assessment technique is most appropriate for assessing creative thinking in students?
    • Reasoning questions
    • Open ended questions
    • Logical questions
    • Hypothesising
    
    
73. Jigsaw method is a form of :
    • Collaborative Learning
    • Co-operative Learning
    • Graphic Organiser Strategy
    • Problem Based Learning
    
    
74. Which is an example for reflective teaching practise?
    • Changing presentation style after a feedback session
    • Giving follow-up activities regularly
    • Ensuring activities suggested in text book
    • Conducting an achievement test
    
    
75. According to Benjamin S. Bloom, the category which develops the creative ability of students is :
    • Analysis
    • Application
    • Evaluation
    • Synthesis
    
    
76. Ex Post Facto research means :
    • The research is carried out after the incident.
    • The research is carried out alongwith the happening of an incident.
    • The research is carried out prior the incident.
    • The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident.
    
    
77. Research ethics do not include :
    • Honesty
    • Subjectivity
    • Integrity
    • Objectivity
    
    
78. Which is the main purpose of research in education?
    • To help in the personal growth of an individual.
    • To increase social status of an individual.
    • To help the individual to become an eminent educationalist.
    • To increase job prospects of an individual.
    
    
79. When 2 or more successive footnotes refer to the same work, which one of the following expressions is used?
    • ibid
    • et.al
    • op.cit
    • loc.cit
    
    
80. Conferences are meant for :
    • Multiple target groups
    • Group discussions
    • Show casing new research
    • All of these
    
    
81. Under Art : 321 of the Constitution of India, the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission has been vested in the :
    • Chairman of the Commission
    • President of India
    • Parliament
    • Ministry of Home Affairs
    
    
82. Consider the following statements :
    (i) The President can commute death sentence to the life imprisonment.
    (ii) The Governor cannot commute death sentence to the life imprisonment.
    (iii) The President’s power to pardon extends to punishment or sentence by Court Martial. Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • (ii) only
    • (i) and (iii) only
    • (ii) and (iii) only
    • (i), (ii) and (iii)
    
    
83. Salient feature of Indian Constitution have been borrowed from various sources. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
    • Emergency provisions - Germany
    • Fundamental rights - USA
    • Structural parts - Government of India Act, 1935
    • Bicameralism and relation - Canadian Constitution between executive and legislature
    
    
84. Which of the following are correctly matched?
    (i) Tenth Schedule -; Added by 52nd Amendment Act
    (ii) Nineth Schedule - Added by 1st Amendment Act
    (iii) Art : 15(5) - Added by 93rd Amendment Act
    (iv) Twelfth Schedule - Added by 74th Amendment Act
    Codes :
    • (i) and (ii)
    • (i), (ii), and (iii)
    • (i), (iii), and (iv)
    • All of these
    
    
85. Under Indian Constitution which is not a ground on which the state can place restriction on freedom of religion?
    • Public Order
    • Morality
    • Health
    • Economic justice
    
    
86. What is the time span mentioned in the RTI Act, 2005 for making orders, for removing difficulties in giving effect to the provisions of the RTI Act, 2005?
    • 1 year from the commencement of the Act
    • 2 years from the commencement of the Act
    • 3 years from the commencement of the Act
    • 4 years from the commencement of the Act
    
    
87. Under protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, who will present application to magistrate?
    • Aggrieved person
    • Protection officer
    • Other person on behalf of the aggrieved person
    • Either of theses
    
    
88. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 came into effect from :
    • November 14th 2012
    • October 2nd 2012
    • November 1st 2012
    • October 10th 2012
    
    
89. Who can apply to court for injunction under Sec : 22 A of Air [Prevention and Control of Pollution] Act, 1981?
    • Pollution Control Board
    • Any Person
    • State Government
    • Central Government
    
    
90. Which of the following statement is false?
    • Under Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994, a foreigner cannot get a local donor in India.
    • Human blood is ‘drug’ under Drugs and Cosmetic Act.
    • Cadaveric organ donation means pledging of organs for Transplantation after confirmation of brain death.
    • A person between the age of 18 - 65 years can donate blood.
    
    
91. The Nampoothiri woman who is nominated to the Cochin Legislative assembly to render advice on the Nampoothiri bill :
    • Lalitha Prabhu
    • Lalithambika Antharjanam
    • Arya Pallem
    • K. Devayani
    
    
92. Who among the following poets is known as RASHTRAKAVI?
    • Pallath Raman
    • K.P. Karuppan
    • M. Govinda Pai
    • N.V. Krishna Warrier
    
    
93. Purogamana Sahitya Samiti (Progressive Writers Association) was founded in the year :
    • 1937
    • 1928
    • 1932
    • 1941
    Question error
    
    
94. Which of the following townships has a college named after Velu Thampi Dalawa?
    • Neyyattinkara
    • Dhanuvechapuram
    • Attingal
    • Parassala
    
    
95. Patriotic poem “Varika Varika Sahachare” is written by :
    • Amsi Narayana Pillai
    • Bodheswaran
    • Abhaya Dev
    • Vayalar Ramavarma
    
    
96. The Newspaper “Samadarsi” started in 1923 was founded by :
    • C.V. Kunjuraman
    • K. Ramakrishna Pillai
    • K. Krishnan
    • Kesari A. Balakrishna Pillai
    Question error
    
    
97. Sarvodaya leader M.P. Manmadhan is associated with :
    • Khadi Movement
    • Prohibition Movement
    • Hindi Movement
    • Abstention Movement
    
    
98. Kerala Provincial Congress Committee came into existence in :
    • 1919
    • 1928
    • 1924
    • 1921
    
    
99. “Hunger March” of 1936 from Kannur to Chennai was led by :
    • K. Kelappan
    • P. Krishna Pillai
    • N.C. Shekhar
    • A.K. Gopalan
    
    
100. The book “Gandhi and Anarchy” is written by :
     • C. Achutha Menon
     • C. Shankaran Nair
     • K.M. Panicker
     • V.K. Krishna Menon