Lecturer in Biochemistry Collegiate Education 245/2017 Answer Key

2/07/2018
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Post : Lecturer in Biochemistry
Department : UGC Collegiate Education
Category Code : 245/17
Qualification : Masters Degree in Biochemistry
Date of Test : 06-02-2018



  1. The students are mostly influenced by
    • Father
    • Mother
    • Teacher
    • Friends

  2. Which is to be considered while constructing curriculum?
    • Objectives
    • Values
    • Methods
    • Students

  3. A teacher should have knowledge about
    • Child psychology
    • Educational psychology
    • Educational sociology
    • All these

  4. The method which is also known as laboratory method
    • Project method
    • Problem solving method
    • Heuristic method
    • Source method

  5. The book 'Democracy and Education' is written by
    • Plato
    • Aristotle
    • Dewey
    • Rousseau

  6. Purposive sampling is also known as
    • Deliberate sampling
    • Quota sampling
    • Simple random sampling
    • Stratified random sampling

  7. H-test is also known as
    • Distribution-free test
    • Fisher Irwin test
    • Kruskal-Wallis test
    • Wilcoxon-Manny-Whitney test

  8. The researcher has no control over the variables in
    • Descriptive Research
    • Conceptual Research
    • Fundamental Research
    • Qualitative Research

  9. Which is not a code of ethics to be followed by a researcher?
    • Objectivity in data collection
    • Objectivity in statistical techniques
    • Objectivity in analysis
    • Objectivity in findings

  10. The study of commonsense knowledge
    • Ethnography
    • Ethnomethodology
    • Epistemology
    • Historiography

  11. Fatty acids occurring in humans most commonly
    • are highly branched structure
    • have double bonds present in trans configuration
    • contain an even number of carbon atoms
    • are limited to 16 or fewer carbon atoms

  12. The active site of all serine proteases contain
    • Histidine
    • Asparagine
    • gamma-carboxyglutamate
    • Lysine or arginine

  13. If a polypeptide has 400 amino acid residues, what is its approximate mass?
    • 22,000 daltons
    • 40,000 daltons
    • 44,000 daltons
    • 80,000 daltons

  14. Gamma(`gamma`)-carboxyglutamate, a derived amino acid is found in
    • elastin
    • collagen
    • hemoglobin
    • prothrombin

  15. Determine the Km value of the following enzyme catalyzed reaction (where k1 = 109 M-1 S-1, k2 = 105 S-1, k3=102 S-1, k4=104 M-1 S-1)
    • 10-3M
    • 10-4M
    • 10-7M
    • 10-9M

  16. Which of the following contains a hexahydroxy alcohol?
    • Gangliosides
    • Phosphatidylcholines
    • Phosphatidylinositols
    • Sphingomyelins

  17. The amide nitrogen of glutamine
    • represents a nontoxic transport form of ammonia
    • is used in synthesis of asparagine, purines and pyrimidines
    • can be recovered as ammonia by the action of glutaminase
    • all of these

  18. Artificial sweeteners sugar free and equal contain aspartame. Name the two amino acids that are components of aspartame
    • Aspartic acid and phenylalanine
    • Arginine and tyrosine
    • Aspartic acid and tryptophan
    • Aspartic acid and glutamic acid

  19. Amino acids present in glutathione include
    • Glutamate, cysteine, glycine
    • Aspartate, cysteine, glycine
    • Glutamate, cysteine, lysine
    • Glutamate, methionine, glycine

  20. Molar concentration of H2O in pure water is
    • 30.5 M
    • 55.5 M
    • 75 M
    • 100 M

  21. Lactate dehydrogenase reaction is monitored by formation of NADH at wavelength
    • 260
    • 280
    • 340
    • 420

  22. Hyaluronate, an important component of vitreous humor and synovial fluid, is
    • A sugar alcohol
    • A glycosaminoglycan
    • A glycoprotein
    • A glycol lipid

  23. Statins are routinely used for treatment of hypercholesterolemia. They mediate their action by inhibiting
    • AMP-activated protein kinase
    • Lecithin-cholesterol acyl transferase
    • Prostaglandin synthase
    • Hydroxyl methyl glutaryl CoA reductase

  24. In presence of competitive inhibitor in enzyme catalysed reactions
    • Vmax increases
    • Vmax decreases
    • Km increases
    • Km decreases

  25. A peptide has a sequence Glu-His-Trp-Ser-Gly-Leu-Lys-Pro-Gly. What is the net charge on the molecule at pH 11?
    • +2
    • -1
    • 0
    • -2

  26. The alpha carboxyl group of all the 20 standard amino acids have pK value in the range
    • 1.8 - 2.9
    • 4.2 - 6.5
    • 7.2 - 8.2
    • 8.8 - 10.8

  27. IL-2 secretion induces
    • T-cell proliferation
    • Vasculature formation
    • Antiviral activity
    • MHC-1 expression

  28. Which of the following is used as homology and similarity tool?
    • EMBOSS
    • RAMSOL
    • BLAST
    • PROSPECT

  29. Abzymes are
    • Proenzymes
    • Enzymes that hydrolyse antibiotics
    • Enzymes present in biodetergents
    • Antibodies having catalytic activities

  30. Triple stranded collagen helix is stabilized by
    • Leucine and isoleucine
    • Proline and hydroxyproline
    • Phenylalanine and valine
    • Methionine and cysteine

  31. Which of the following is a DNA binding motif?
    • helix-loop-helix
    • leucine zipper
    • zinc finger
    • all of these

  32. The ideal instrument used for getting accurate mass data in peptide mass finger printing is
    • Electrophoretic apparatus
    • MALDI-TOF MS instrument
    • Spectrophotometer
    • Ultracentrifuge

  33. Which of the following is tumor suppressor gene?
    • WT1
    • Src
    • Myc
    • None of these

  34. Which organelle is involved in the oxidation of very long-chain fatty acids?
    • Peroxisomes
    • Nucleus
    • Endoplasmic reticulum
    • Golgi apparatus

  35. Hyper secretion of ACTH is associated with
    • Amenorrhoea
    • Cushing's disease
    • Steatorrea
    • Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

  36. Visualization of distribution of transmembrane protein in the plane of a cell membrane can be done in best way by using
    • Phase contrast microscope
    • Freeze fracture electron microscopy
    • Scanning electron microscopy
    • Affinity chromatography

  37. Ziehl Neelsen staining procedure is applied for staining
    • Mycobacterium
    • Shigella spp.
    • E. coli
    • Candida spp.

  38. Which of the following is not a gluconeogenic enzyme?
    • Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
    • Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
    • Glucose 6-phosphatase
    • Phosphoglucomutase

  39. Which of the following antitumor agents works by impairing de novo purine synthesis?
    • Acyclovir
    • 5-Fluorouracil
    • Methotrexate
    • Hydroxyurea

  40. Which of the following is a method for assessing genome complexity?
    • Annealing
    • Electrophoresis
    • Equilibrium centrifugation
    • C0t curves

  41. The direct effect of cAMP in the protein kinase A pathway is to
    • activate adenylate cyclase
    • dissociate regulatory subunits from protein kinase
    • phosphorylate certain cellular proteins
    • phosphorylate proteins kinase A

  42. Gamma glutamyl transferase is commonly used marker for diagnosis of
    • Cardiac diseases
    • Diabetes
    • Alzheimer disease
    • Liver diseases

  43. The histamine is responsible for causing
    • Vasodilation
    • Increased capillary permeability
    • Broncho constriction
    • All of these

  44. Which of the following pairs of vectors and DNA insert sizes is correctly matched?
    • Plasmids 5-10 kb
    • Cosmids 15 kb
    • YACs 5000 kb
    • Bacteriophage lambda 45 kb

  45. How many high-energy bonds are used in the formation of one peptide bond?
    • 1
    • 2
    • 3
    • 4

  46. DNA polymerase III lacks following activities
    • 5 - 3' polymerase
    • 3 - 5' exonuclease
    • 5 - 3' exonuclease
    • All of these

  47. Triskelion structure is associated with
    • Glycophorin A
    • Clathrin
    • Elastases
    • Nucleosomes

  48. The size of Okazaki segments synthesized on lagging strand of bacterial DNA is approximately
    • 100 - 200 nucleotides
    • 100 - 200 base pairs
    • 1000 - 2000 nucleotides
    • 1000 - 2000 base pairs

  49. Galactosemia
    • is a genetic deficiency of a uridylyltransferase that exchanges galactose 1-phosphate for glucose on UDP-glucose
    • results from a deficiency of an epimerase
    • is not apparent at birth but symptoms develop in later life
    • is an inability to form galactose 1-phosphate

  50. Which of the following consensus sequence is present at -35 position of a typical bacterial promoter?
    • TTGACA
    • TATAAT
    • GAATTC
    • None of these

  51. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase during their experiment on phase DNA used following radioisotopes for labeling
    • 3H and 15N
    • 14C and 131I
    • 32P and 35S
    • 3H and 60Co

  52. Pentaglycine chain bridges the lysine E-amino group and the D-alanine carboxylic group in the cell wall of
    • Gram positive bacteria
    • Gram negative bacteria
    • Fungi
    • Higher plants

  53. Lactate to pyruvate conversion takes place in
    • Muscle
    • Liver
    • Muscle and liver
    • None of these

  54. Attenuational control of gene expression occurs in
    • Bacteria
    • Mitochondria
    • Chloroplasts
    • All of these

  55. Which of the following RNA types is comparatively least stable in bacteria?
    • mRNA
    • tRNA
    • rRNA
    • All are equally stable

  56. The proteins that redistribute lipids across the membrane belong to the class
    • Flippases
    • Floppases
    • Scramblasses
    • All of these

  57. Selenocysteine is coded by
    • AUG
    • UAA
    • UAG
    • UGA

  58. Predict the order of emergence of the following proteins when a mixture of four is chromatographed on a gel exclusion column at pH 7
    Protein 1 ; Mr 6,000 pI = 5
    Protein 2 ; Mr 23,000 pI = 8
    Protein 3 ; Mr 55,000 pI = 4
    Protein 4 ; Mr 10,000 pI = 10
    • Protein 1, Protein 2, Protein 3, Protein 4
    • Protein 3, Protein 2, Protein 4, Protein 1
    • Protein 4, Protein 2, Protein 1, Protein 3
    • Protein 3, Protein 1, Protein 2, Protein 4

  59. Which of the following is anion exchange resin?
    • CM cellulose
    • Dowex-50
    • DEAE cellulose
    • CM sepharose

  60. How many bands will appear when hemoglobin is electrophoresed on SDS PAGE in reducing condition?
    • 1
    • 2
    • 3
    • 4

  61. Major emission band during measurement of sodium concentration by flame emission spectroscopy is obtained at the wave length
    • 589 nm
    • 671 nm
    • 786 nm
    • 852 nm

  62. Identify the commonly used mobile phase in GC-MS.
    • CH3CN
    • H2O
    • He
    • CO2

  63. For studying protein dynamics in live cells fluorescence recovery after photobleaching (FRAP) is used. It is based on
    • Rapid image acquisition of live cells
    • Mobility of particular fusion protein
    • Reversible photobleaching of fluorescent protein
    • Irreversible photobleaching of fluorescent protein

  64. Which combination of ligand and target molecule is wrongly written about affinity chromatography?
    • Antibody-antigen
    • Hormone-receptor
    • Avidin-biotin
    • Lectin-immunoglobulin

  65. Which of the following dye is used for staining denatured linear RNA during electrophoresis?
    • Ethydium bromide
    • Bromophenol blue
    • Commassie brilliant blue
    • Acridine orange

  66. Fundamental vibrational motions are studied in
    • IR spectroscopy
    • UV-Vis spectroscopy
    • Circular dichroism
    • Mass spectrometry

  67. Diapedesis is
    • An increase in diameter of blood vessels
    • An increase in capillary permeability
    • Emigration of phagocytes through the gap between endothelial cells to inflammation site
    • Adherence of cells to the endothelial wall

  68. Half life of 14C is about 5760 years. After how many years will you get about 3% of the original activity?
    • 5760 years
    • 17280 years
    • 28800 years
    • 34560 years

  69. The separation of plasma proteins by electrophoresis is commonly carried out at pH
    • 10.0
    • 8.6
    • 7.4
    • 6.5

  70. Which of the following does not participate in antioxidant defense system?
    • SOD
    • Catalase
    • Glutathione
    • Glucokinase

  71. The enzyme present in Indian cobra venom, responsible for mediating toxic effect, is
    • Proteinases
    • Nucleases
    • Phospholipase
    • Carbohydrases

  72. Telomerase
    • is a ribonucleoprotein
    • is a RNA dependent DNA polymerase
    • uses 3 end of DNA as primer and adds successive TTAGGG repeats to it
    • all of these

  73. Diisopropylphosphofluoridate is an irreversible inhibitor of the enzyme
    • Acetylcholinesterase
    • Glycopeptide transpeptidase
    • Cytochrome oxidase
    • Succinate dehydrogenase

  74. Reverse transcriptase has
    • RNA dependent DNA polymerase activity
    • DNA dependent DNA polymerase activity
    • RNase H activity
    • All of these

  75. Which of the following is lacking in muscle, but present in normal liver?
    • Glycogen phosphorylase
    • Glucose-6-phosphatase
    • Phosphoglucomutase
    • Phosphoglucokinase

  76. Full form of DPT vaccine is
    • Diphtheria, Pertusis, Tetanus
    • Diphtheria, Pertusis, Typhoid
    • Diphtheria, Pneumonia, Tetanus
    • Dysentry, Polio, Tetanus

  77. Penicillin inhibits bacterial growth by irreversibly inactivating the enzyme
    • Fatty acid synthase
    • Glycopeptide transpeptidase
    • Cytochrome oxidase
    • Hexokinase

  78. Which statistical test is used for comparison of two means from independent samples?
    • F-test
    • t-test
    • Chi-square test
    • Z-test

  79. Which of the following acts like detergent?
    • Isoprene
    • Phospholipids
    • Deoxycholic acid
    • Estradiols

  80. Splicing of GU-AG intron
    • Involves transesterification reaction
    • Form Y-shaped branch structure
    • Occurs in prokaryotic messenger RNA
    • Requires maturase activity

  81. Name the monthly brought out by the Publication Division, Government of India, that carries messages of economic development
    • Kurukshetra
    • Yojana
    • Rosgar Samachar
    • Ajit

  82. Which of the following is the largest circulated newspaper in India?
    • Malayala Manorama
    • Dainik Jagran
    • Eenadu
    • Dainik Bhaskar

  83. What are bots?
    • Robots which manage complex security and surveillance tasks
    • Remote sensing earth stations of the satellite
    • Computer programmes designed to work automatically over the internet
    • Massive virtual storage of information of big corporations

  84. Who among the following is the leader of the Indian National Congress in the 16th Lok Sabha?
    • Mallikarjun Kharge
    • Rahul Gandhi
    • Sonia Gandhi
    • Gulab Nabi Azad

  85. Post truth which means debates are framed largely by appeals to emotions disconnected from the details of the issues became widespread during the campaigns of the
    • 2016 Presidential election in the US
    • 2014 Lok Sabha election in India
    • 2012 Presidential election in the US
    • 2012 Russian presidential election

  86. The first Educational magazine in Kerala published by CMS college is
    • Njana Nikshepam
    • Vidya Vinodini
    • Vivekodayam
    • Vidyasangraham

  87. Kannerum Kinavum is an autobiography of
    • Sahodaran Ayyappan
    • V.T. Bhattathirippad
    • Ayyankali
    • Kumara Guru

  88. The proprietor and promoter of Swadeshabhimani was
    • K. Ramakrishna Pilla
    • A. Balakrishna Pilla
    • Vakkam Abdul Khader Moulavi
    • K.P. Kesava Menon

  89. Name the first woman judge of a High Court in India
    • Anna Chandy
    • Arya Pallam
    • Akkamma Cherian
    • A.V. Kuttimalu Amma

  90. Nivarthana movement in the early 1930s was an agitation demanding adequate representation in the legislature for
    • Ezhavas
    • Muslims
    • Christians
    • All of these

  91. The Preamble to the Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on
    • 26th November 1949
    • 26th January 1949
    • 26th January 1950
    • 15th August 1947

  92. Which among the following statement/s is/are true about Directive Principles of States Policy?
    • The provisions contained in this part shall not be enforceable by any court
    • They are fundamental in the governance of the country
    • It shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws
    • All these

  93. The President of India takes the oath in the presence of who among the following?
    • Prime Minister of India
    • Chief Justice of India
    • Speaker of Rajya Sabha
    • Speaker of Lok Sabha

  94. The relations between the Union and the States are provided in which part of the constitution?
    • Part XI
    • Part XII
    • Part XIII
    • Part XIV

  95. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides provision as to financial emergency?
    • 356
    • 359
    • 368
    • 360

  96. The Right to Information Act was enacted by the Indian Parliament in which year?
    • 2002
    • 2005
    • 2015
    • None of these

  97. An Act to give effect to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities was passed by Parliament in which year?
    • 1995
    • 2000
    • 2016
    • None of these

  98. How many guaranteed wage employments per financial year were originally guaranteed by the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Act, 2005?
    • 365
    • 180
    • 100
    • 90

  99. As per the National Food Security Act of 2013, who among the following is the head of the household for the purpose of issue of ration cards?
    • Oldest male member above the age of 18 years
    • Oldest female member above the age of 18 years
    • Oldest member above the age of 18 years
    • Any member proposed by the family

  100. Which among the following ISO family of standards provide practical tools for companies and organisations to manage their Environmental responsibilities?
    • ISO 14000
    • ISO 9001
    • ISO 26000
    • ISO 50001

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