Lecturer in Microbiology 428/2016 Answer Key

Post : Lecturer in Microbiology
Department : Collegiate Education
Category Code : 428/16
Qualification : Masters Degree in Microbiology
Question Paper Code : 28/18
Date of Test : 20-02-2018

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1. The social reformer who wrote Soundarayalahari
   • Sree Narayana Guru
   • Sankaracharya
   • Vivekananda
   • Chattampi Swamikal
   
   
2. The movement started against the administrative reforms introduced in Travancore in 1932
   • Nivarthana Agitation
   • Malayalee Memorial
   • Ezhava Memorial
   • Channar Agitation
   
   
3. Barrister G.P. Pillai is associated with
   • Malayalee Memorial
   • Ezhava Memorial
   • Nivarthana Agitation
   • Channar Agitation
   
   
4. Kumaran Asan's Veena Poovu was published for the first time in
   • Malayalee
   • Yukthivadi
   • Kesari
   • Mitavadi
   
   
5. Which woman leader of Travancore organized the Female Volunteer Corps called Desasevika Sangham?
   • A.V. Kuttimalu Amma
   • Arya Prabhu
   • Accamma Cherian
   • Anna Chandy
   
   
6. The first woman to be the Chairperson of State Bank of India
   • Kiran Mazumdar
   • Arundhathi Chatterjee
   • Indra Nooyi
   • Arundhati Bhattacharya
   
   
7. Who is the author of 'From earth to the Moon'?
   • Edwin Aldrin
   • Jules Verni
   • Neil Armstrong
   • Rakesh Sharma
   
   
8. Storting is the name of the Parliament in
   • Denmark
   • Jordan
   • Norway
   • Switzerland
   
   
9. The recipient of Ezhuthachan Award 2017
   • Sachidanandhan
   • M.K. Sanu
   • M.T. Vasudevan Nair
   • C. Radha Krishnan
   
   
10. National Food Security Act was passed by Indian Parliament in the year
    • 2012
    • 2013
    • 2014
    • 2015
    
    
11. The concept of school complex was first started in __________.
    • Kerala
    • Rajasthan
    • Karnataka
    • Gujarat
    
    
12. Father of Psychoanalysis is
    • Jerome S. Bruner
    • Albert Bandura
    • Sigmund Freud
    • B.F. Skinner
    
    
13. If a teacher happens to commit a mistake in class, what is the right choice he/she has to take?
    • avoid it
    • admit it
    • justify it
    • none of these
    
    
14. Close-ended type questions are questions provided with
    • agree-disagree answers
    • yes or no answers
    • multiple type answers
    • no answers
    
    
15. You are adopting variety of tasks to ensure each and every students learning. Which theory would influence you more?
    • Piaget's cognitive development theory
    • Gardner's multiple intelligence theory
    • Vygotsky's socio-cultural theory
    • Kurt Lewin's field theory
    
    
16. A researcher does not fix the ultimate size of the sample in advance but determines according to mathematical decisions on the basis of information yielded as data collection progresses. This is technically called
    • Systematic sampling
    • Random sampling
    • Sequential sampling
    • Quota sampling
    
    
17. Validity of a research can be ensured by
    1. avoiding the extraneous variables
    2. taking the true representation sample of the population
    3. stratified sample
    4. only field study
    • (1) and (3) correct
    • (1) and (4) correct
    • (1), (2) and (3) correct
    • (1) and (2) correct
    
    
18. Rearrange the following in appropriate order :
    1. Formulating hypothesis
    2. Data analysis and interpretation
    3. Developing research questions
    4. Preparation of the report
    • 1, 2, 3, 4
    • 1, 3, 2, 4
    • 2, 1, 3, 4
    • 3, 1, 2, 4
    
    
19. Which of the following is not a characteristic of action research?
    i. Results are generalizable
    ii. Hypotheses were tested
    iii. Developed a theory
    iv. Data were qualitative
    • i, ii and iii
    • i, ii and iv
    • i, iii and iv
    • ii, iii and iv
    
    
20. The research ethics means
    • the quality of the research
    • proved a particular point intentionally
    • the quantity of the research
    • all of these
    
    
21. Which of the following is not a salient feature of Indian Constitution?
    • Single citizenship
    • Presidential system
    • Fundamental rights
    • Judicial review
    
    
22. Economic and social planning is a subject included in the
    • Concurrent list
    • State list
    • Residuary powers
    • Union list
    
    
23. Article 19 (1) (c) of the Indian Constitution is related to
    • Right to assemble peaceably and without arms
    • Right to freedom of speech and expression
    • Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
    • Right to form associations or unions
    
    
24. The UPSC have on July 19, 2000 constituted a committee to review the existing scheme of civil service examination under the chairmanship of __________.
    • Prof. Y.K. Alagh
    • Dr. B.P. Mathur
    • Prof. M. Anandakrishnan
    • Shri. P.C. Hota
    
    
25. Which of the following constitution amendment act is related with the disqualification of a member of either House of Parliament on the grounds of defection from his party?
    • The Constitution 50th Amendment Act
    • The Constitution 52nd Amendment Act
    • The Constitution 54th Amendment Act
    • The Constitution 56th Amendment Act
    
    
26. ''Record'' is defined under __________ of the Right to Information Act, 2005.
    • Section 2(a)
    • Section 2(f)
    • Section 2(h)
    • Section 2(i)
    
    
27. The day on which the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 received the assent of the President of India
    • 11th June 2012
    • 19th June 2012
    • 26th June 2012
    • 29th June 2012
    
    
28. The National Commission for Women shall consist of
    • A Chairperson, four other members and a member secretary
    • A Chairperson, six other members and a member secretary
    • A Chairperson, three other members and a member secretary
    • A Chairperson, five other members and a member secretary
    
    
29. Which of the following programme was introduced to assist the poor families living below the poverty line in rural areas for taking up self employment?
    • Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana
    • Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana
    • Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
    • Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana
    
    
30. Chairperson and every member of the state food commission shall hold office for a term not exceeding ________.
    • Five years
    • Three years
    • Six years
    • Four years
    
    
31. Hopanoids are present in which part of bacterial cell?
    • Cell membrane
    • Cell wall
    • Cytoplasm
    • Nucleoid
    
    
32. Standard reference text for bacterial classification
    • Baltimore's classification
    • Zimmer's catalogue
    • Bergey's manual
    • Bentham and Hooker's classification
    
    
33. Volutin granules can be demonstrated by which of the following staining methods?
    • Gram's staining
    • LPCB
    • Acid fast staining
    • Albert's stain
    
    
34. Which one of the following is a test for diagnosis of typhoid?
    • ASO test
    • Widal test
    • VDRL test
    • TPHA test
    
    
35. The temperature and holding period for routine autoclaving are
    • 160°C for 1 second
    • 121°C for 15 minutes
    • 115°C for 10 minutes
    • 130°C for 15 seconds
    
    
36. Which of the following staining techniques is used to demonstrate Spirochaetes in tissues?
    • Malachite green stain
    • Acid fast staining
    • Fontana's stain
    • LPCB stain
    Question error
    
    
37. The term Iatrogenic infection is also known as
    • Physician induced infection
    • Subclinical infections
    • Hospital acquired infection
    • Blood borne infection
    
    
38. ________ is a major component of biogas.
    • Alkane
    • Butane
    • Ethane
    • Methane
    
    
39. Phenyl acetic acid added to the fermentation media for penicillin production is a
    • Inducer
    • Inhibitor
    • Precursor
    • Mordant
    
    
40. Baffles are used in fermenters for providing
    • Acidification
    • Agitation
    • Antifoam
    • None of these
    
    
41. You are provided with a sputum sample of a suspected case of tuberculosis. The smear prepared with the sample is stained with which of the following staining methods.
    • Lactophenol Cotton Blue stain
    • Albert's stain
    • Fontana's stain
    • Ziehl-Neelsen stain
    
    
42. Numerical taxonomy is otherwise called as __________.
    • Adansonian classification
    • Molecular classification
    • Adamson classification
    • None of these
    
    
43. Carboxysomes is the site fore which of the following reactions?
    • Nitrogen fixation
    • CO₂ fixation
    • Reduction of CO₂
    • None of these
    
    
44. String test is used to identify which of the following bacteria?
    • Vibrio spp.
    • Salmonella typhi
    • E. coli
    • Shigella sp.
    
    
45. Cholera red reaction is due to which of the following?
    • Methyl red and VP test
    • Indole and Methyl red test
    • Indole and nitrate reduction test
    • Urease and nitrate reduction test
    
    
46. DPT is used for protection against
    • Dysentry, polio and tetanus
    • Diarrhoea, pyrexia and tetanus
    • Diphtheria, polio and tetanus
    • Diphtheria, whooping cough and tetanus
    
    
47. Which of the following is called 'the millionaire molecule'?
    • IgM
    • IgE
    • IgA
    • IgD
    
    
48. Bence Jones protein is associated with which of the following diseases?
    • Jaundice
    • Multiple myeloma
    • Diabetes
    • Mycotic infections
    
    
49. Weil-Felix test is used for the diagnosis of which of the following diseases?
    • Tetanus
    • Tuberculosis
    • Typhus fevers
    • Typhoid fever
    
    
50. Smallest unit of antigenicity is known as __________.
    • Antigen
    • Antibody
    • Haptens
    • Epitope
    
    
51. Pasteurization is defined as _______________.
    • Heating to 62.8°C for 30 seconds
    • Heating to 68.1°C for 80 seconds
    • Heating to 71.7°C for 15 seconds
    • Heating to 82.5°C for 10 minutes
    
    
52. Hybridomas can be isolated using which of the following media?
    • Hypoxanthine-Aminopterin-Thymidine medium
    • Eagle's Minimum Essential Medium
    • Murashige and Skoog medium
    • Hypoxanthine-Aminoglycoside-Thymine medium
    
    
53. Shingles is caused by reactivation of which of the following viruses?
    • Rubella virus
    • Varicella Zoster virus
    • Shope Fibroma virus
    • Respiratory Syncytial virus
    
    
54. Lyophilization is otherwise called
    • Freeze thawing
    • Freeze etching
    • Freeze fracturing
    • Freeze drying
    
    
55. Which one of the following is a capsulated pathogenic yeast?
    • Schizosaccharomyces pombe
    • Aspergillus flavus
    • Saccharomyces cerevisiae
    • Cryptococcus neoformans
    
    
56. Penicillin is an example for a ________.
    • Aminoglycoside
    • Polyene antibiotic
    • β-lactam antibiotic
    • Polypeptide antibiotic
    
    
57. Gram stained smear a of CSF sample shows the presence of gram negative diplococci. Which one of the following the organisms is most likely to be isolated from the sample?
    • N. gonorrhoeae
    • N. meningitidis
    • Streptococcus pneumoniae
    • Streptococcus pyogenes
    
    
58. Nitrogen fixing symbiotic organism present in the leaves of Azolla is
    • Anabaena
    • Alosira
    • Azospirillum
    • Rhizobium
    
    
59. Denitrification refers to which of the following processes?
    • Production of ammonia form amino acids
    • Conversion of nitrogen to ammonia
    • Conversion of nitrates to nitrogen
    • Conversion of ammonia to nitrate
    
    
60. Which one of the following is considered to be an indicator of water pollution?
    • N. gonorrhoeae
    • E. Coli
    • Haemophilus influenzae
    • Streptococcus pyogenes
    
    
61. Phosphatase test is used to test the efficacy of which of the following processes?
    • Pasteurization
    • Canning
    • Cold sterilization
    • None of these
    
    
62. Which of the following is not used for disinfection of water?
    • Chlorine
    • Ultra violet rays
    • Ozone
    • Mercuric chloride
    
    
63. Botulinum toxin acts by which of the following mechanism?
    • Exerts its effects on the cyclic AMP system
    • Causes lysis of RBC's
    • Blocks the release of acetylcholine, at the neuromuscular junction
    • Transfer of ADP-ribose to elongation factor-2, inhibiting protein synthesis
    
    
64. Which of the following is considered to be the optimum temperature range for the growth of psychrophiles?
    • 20-37°C
    • 80-110°C
    • 45-65°C
    • 0-15°C
    
    
65. Which of the following is not used for the cultivation of viruses?
    • Cell cultures
    • Blood agar
    • Animals
    • Embryonated eggs
    
    
66. Citric acid production is done with the help of which of the following
    • Aspergillus niger
    • Aspergillus flavus
    • Penicillium chyrsogenum
    • Sacharomyces cerevisiae
    
    
67. Which of the following methods is used to demonstrate antibiotic sensitivity?
    • Roll tube technique
    • Slide Culture technique
    • Stokes' method
    • Standard Plate count
    
    
68. Strain improvement for industrial fermentation can be achieved by which of the following methods
    • Parasexual hybridization
    • UV mutagenesis
    • Protoplast fusion
    • All of these
    
    
69. Downstream process is used for
    • Extraction of product
    • Preparation of media
    • Sterilization of media
    • None of these
    
    
70. Hiss's serum water medium is used to study fermentation reactions in case of which of the following bacteria?
    • Staphylococcus aureus
    • Streptococcus pneumoniae
    • E. Coli
    • Salmonella typhi
    
    
71. The colonies of E. coli growing on EMB agar appear as _________.
    • Dark centered colonies with green metallic sheen
    • Pink coloured colonies with dark centres
    • Yellow coloured colonies
    • Blue colonies
    
    
72. Flagella seen in Vibrio cholerae can be described as __________.
    • Peritrichous flagella
    • Bipolar
    • Lophotrichous
    • Single polar flagellum
    
    
73. Which of the following descriptions best suits a mycorrhizae?
    • Symbiotic association between a fungus and an algae
    • Symbiotic association between an actinomycete and fungus
    • Symbiotic association between a fungus and roots of a vascular plant
    • None of these
    
    
74. Nisin is defined as which one of the following?
    • Nucleotide, toxic to nerves
    • Peptide, lantibiotic used as food preservative
    • Carbohydrate with antimicrobial properties
    • None of these
    
    
75. The ratio of the water vapour pressure of food substrate to the vapour pressure of pure water at the same temperature is known as __________.
    • Water activity
    • Water pressure
    • Partial pressure of water
    • None of these
    
    
76. Azotobacter is
    • a plant pathogenic bacteria
    • used for production of acetic acid
    • free living bacteria which can fix nitrogen
    • none of these
    
    
77. Secondary metabolites are produced during which phase of growth cycle of a microbe?
    • Log phase
    • Stationary phase
    • Lag phase
    • None of these
    
    
78. The term 12D treatment refers to which of the following processes?
    • Process which destroys psychrophilic bacteria
    • Heat treatment sufficient to kill 12 bacteria
    • 12 different treatments used to preserve food
    • a 10¹² reduction in C. botulinum endospores
    
    
79. Which one of the following reactions is considered to be undesirable in the process of wine-making?
    • Conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid
    • Conversion of ethanol to acetic acid
    • Conversion of sucrose to ethanol
    • All of these
    
    
80. You have isolated a non-motile gram-positive cell with no visible nucleus. This cell will definitely posses which of the following?
    • Ribosome
    • Lysosome
    • Mitochondria
    • Golgi complex
    
    
81. Spirochaetes move with the help of which of the following?
    • pseudopodia
    • peritrichous flagella
    • axial filaments
    • pili
    
    
82. Branching filamentous bacteria are known as ___________.
    • Archaebacteria
    • Agaricus
    • Aspergillus
    • Actinomycetes
    
    
83. Leprosy is known as
    • Lancefield disease
    • Hansen's disease
    • Addison's disease
    • Leeuwenhoek's disease
    
    
84. The Ghon complex, a lesion in the lung and regional lymph node is found in which of the following diseases?
    • Primary tuberculosis
    • Tuberculoid leprosy
    • Pneumonia
    • Influenza
    
    
85. Bile esculin test is used to distinguish which of the following bacteria?
    • Pneumococci
    • Group B streptococci
    • Staphylococci
    • Group D streptococci
    
    
86. Which of the following is a predatory bacteria?
    • Streptomyces
    • Bacillus
    • Bdellovibro
    • Pseudomonas
    
    
87. Kauffmann-White Scheme is used for serotyping of which of the following bacteria?
    • Salmonella
    • Shigella
    • Streptococcus
    • Vibrio
    
    
88. MacConkey's agar is a
    • differential medium
    • selective and differential medium
    • selective medium
    • enriched medium
    
    
89. Physiologically and metabolically uniform cell population is obtained during which of the following phases of growth
    • Death phase
    • Stationary phase
    • Log phase
    • Lag phase
    
    
90. Which of the following methods is used to sterilise L-J medium?
    • Pasteurization
    • Autoclaving
    • Hot-air oven
    • Inspissation
    
    
91. Malaria is caused by which of the following?
    • Macromonas
    • Micrococcus
    • Paramecium
    • Plasmodium
    
    
92. Rabies is caused by
    • Rickettsia
    • Rhabdovirus
    • Rubella virus
    • Rotavirus
    
    
93. Candida albicans does not show which the following characteristics?
    • Budding Gram positive cells
    • Reynolds-Braude phenomenon
    • Tuberculate spores
    • Pseudomycelia
    
    
94. When an infective female Anopheles mosquito bites a human being which of the following is introduced into the human body?
    • Sporozoites
    • Signet ring stage
    • Gametocytes
    • Merozoites
    
    
95. Which of the following is not usually used for cultivation of fungi?
    • Cell culture
    • SDA
    • PDA
    • Rose Bengal Agar
    
    
96. Characteristic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies associated with rabies virus infection is known as ___________.
    • Guarnieri bodies
    • Negri bodies
    • Bollinger bodies
    • Cowdry type a inclusions
    
    
97. Which of the following tests are used as confirmatory test for diagnosis of HIV infection?
    • Whey agglutination test
    • VDRL test
    • Widal test
    • Western Blot
    
    
98. Eijkman test is carried out at which the following temperatures?
    • 37°C
    • 25°C
    • 44°C
    • 54°C
    
    
99. Otomycosis refers to infection of which part of the body?
    • thigh
    • ear
    • eye
    • throat
    
    
100. Which of the following is used for determination of efficacy of moist-heat sterilisation?
     • spores of Bacillus cereus
     • cells of Salmonella typhi
     • cells of clostridium tetani
     • spores of Bacillus stearothermophilus