Senior Lecturer in Orthopedics 151/2017 Answer Key

knee xray
Post : Senior Lecturer in Orthopedics
Department : Medical Education
Category Code : 151/2017,152/2017
Qualification : MS (Orthopaedics)/DNB (Orthopaedics) + Permanent Registration under State Medical Council
Date of Test : 14-02-2018



  1. The following are true about Caffey's disease, except
    • Warm swellings over the mandibles
    • Leukocytosis
    • Lesions in the Scapula are usually unilateral
    • Onion peel like appearance on X rays

  2. Sarcoidosis is also known as the following, except
    • Osteitis tuberculosis simplex cyctoides
    • Schaumann's disease
    • Jungling's disease
    • Uveoparotid fever

  3. In chronic low back pain, correlation between CT and EMG for localisation of nerve root injury is between
    • 20 to 35%
    • 80 to 85%
    • 45 to 50%
    • 65 to 73%

  4. Acute Brachial neuritis usually affects
    • Long thoracic nerve
    • Radial nerve
    • Musculocutaneous curve
    • Dorsal scapular nerve

  5. The following are true in Necrotising facilitis caused by streptococcus Pyogenes, except
    • Often begins at the site of a non penetrating injury
    • Creatine Phosphokinase is elevated
    • Renal impairment is common
    • Usually associated with gas in deep tissues

  6. Lytic changes of bone are radiologically visible due to loss of __________% of bone density.
    • 50 - 75
    • 35 - 45
    • 20 - 30
    • More than 80

  7. The most common site of haematohgenous osteomyelitis in adults is
    • Vertebrae
    • Upper Tibia
    • Pubis
    • Neck of Femur

  8. Common causes of Sternal Osteomyelitis after cardiac surgery are all except
    • Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
    • Staph. Aureus
    • Gram negative enteric bacilli
    • Mycoplasma

  9. Ossification center of Greater tuberosity of Humerus appears between the following age
    • Present at birth
    • 5 to 7 year
    • 9 to 10 year
    • 3rd month to 2 year

  10. The most widespread type of cartilage in the body is
    • Hyaline cartilage
    • Fibrocartilage
    • Elastic cartilage
    • Chondro cartilage

  11. The following factors hindering absorption of calcium from the intestine, except
    • Excessive Phosphates
    • Excessive fatty acids
    • Excessive Carbonates
    • Excessive Magnesium

  12. Which of the following is a feature of High Phosphorous rickets?
    • Marked alkalosis
    • Normal parathyroid activity
    • Monkeberg sclerosis
    • Large bowel retains the excess Calcium

  13. The following is true of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism due to renal damage, except
    • High serum Phosphorous
    • High Calcium level
    • Stunted growth
    • Marrow fibrosis

  14. Of the following, which bone is most frequently involved by Paget's disease
    • Skull
    • Spine
    • Tibia
    • Fibula

  15. Empty can' test is done to detect
    • Sacroliliac joint pathology
    • Iliopsoas tear
    • Deltoid ligament pathology
    • Supraspinatus impingement

  16. Birbeck granuless in Histiocyosis X are found inside
    • Endoplasmic Reticulum
    • Langerhan's cells
    • Mitochondria
    • Ribosome

  17. The following is true about Ollier's disease, except
    • More common than Mafucci's syndrome
    • Bilateral distribution of enchondromas
    • Haemangiomas are not seen
    • Lymphangioma is absent

  18. The following are associated with 'coxa saltans' except
    • Thickened lliotibial band
    • Slipping of anterior edge of Gluteus Maximus
    • Illiopsoas tendinitis
    • Rectus femoris tear

  19. The following is true about Riche Cannieu Anastomosis, except
    • May be misdiagnosed as Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
    • Connection from MN to UN in the forearm
    • Electomyography is helpful in diagnosing the condition
    • All intrinsic muscles of hand may be innervated by Ulnar nerve

  20. ''Jersey Finger'' commonly affects
    • Ring finger
    • Index finger
    • Little finger
    • Middle finger

  21. The manifestations of Neurofibromatosis include all except
    • Hypoplasia of transverse process of Thoracic vertebrae
    • Anterior scalloping of Thoracic vertebrae
    • Lateral scaloping of cervical vertebrae
    • Hypoplasia of pedicles

  22. The following is true about Non osteogenic Fibroma of bone
    • Long axis perpendicular to the long axis of the bone
    • Central location in the bone
    • Thin border of decreased density
    • Both ends of Fibula may be involved

  23. Features of Fibrous dysplasia include all except
    • Serum Calcium levels are usually normal
    • Ground glass appearance of bone
    • Leonine ossea
    • Malignant transformation in 30-50%

  24. Gurd test is aid in diagnosis of
    • Ischial bursitis
    • Peroneal tenosynovitis
    • Fat embolism
    • Acromion bursitis

  25. The following is true regarding liposarcoma
    • Polyherdral cells are not seen in liposarcoma
    • Liposarcoma can metastasise to bones
    • Usually seen in adults 40 years or more
    • Liposarcoma do not originate within medullary cavity

  26. The following is true about Gaucher's disease except
    • Patients are susceptible for infections
    • An increase in the number of plasma cells are often seen
    • Lower part of femur is clubbed and expanded
    • X linked recessive inheritance

  27. Needle shaped negative birefringent crystals in synovial fluid is seen in
    • Homocystinuria
    • Gout
    • Cystinuria
    • Alkaptonuria

  28. Which of the following is not useful in treatment of homocystinuria?
    • Vit B6
    • Niacin
    • Folic acid
    • Vit B12

  29. Which of the following congenital disorders can present with hyperuricemia?
    • Alkaptonuria
    • Tay Sach's disease
    • Von Gierke's disease
    • Homocystinuria

  30. Aldol Cross links are seen in
    • Elastin
    • Collagen
    • Procollagen
    • Desmosine

  31. The following are false about ''Park and Harris'' Lines, except
    • Cannot occur after generalized illness
    • They are usually distributed relatively symmetrically
    • The lines near the end of the shaft are thinner
    • Does not occur after trauma

  32. The function of Ostenectin in bone is
    • Binds hydroxyapatite
    • Controls mineralization
    • Binds Calcium
    • Cell attachment

  33. The normal value of blood pressure in a 12 year old (systolic-diastolic) in mm Hg is
    • 60 - 35
    • 115 - 65
    • 120 - 65
    • 98 - 57

  34. The maximum recommended dose of local anesthetic - Lidocaine (with Epinephrine) in children is
    • 6 mg/kg
    • 5 mg/kg
    • 2.5 mg/kg
    • 7 mg/kg

  35. Recommended catheter placement for compartmental pressure measurement, the following is false
    • Thigh : Anterior compartment
    • Leg : Anterior / Posterior compartment
    • Forearm : Extensor compartment
    • Hand : Interosseous compartment

  36. The following is true about Neurogenic shock, except
    • Hypotension
    • Cold extremities
    • Bradycardia
    • Urine output is normal

  37. In Young and Burgess classification, APC type III includes
    • Complete disruption of Sacro Iliac Joint
    • Opening of anterior part of Sacro Iliac Joint
    • Sacral fracture on side of impact
    • Vertical displacement of hemipelvis

  38. The structures causing irreducible anterior hip dislocation are all except
    • Rectus femoris
    • Labrum
    • Ligamentum teres
    • Capsule

  39. In femoral neck fractures, OTA 31-B3.1 correlates to
    • Garden 1
    • Garden 2
    • Garden 3
    • Garden4

  40. The following are features of Cleidocranial Dyostosis, except
    • Hypertelorism
    • Supernumerary teeth
    • Widened symphysis pubis
    • Usually Autosomal Recessive

  41. Hunters syndrome is mucopolysaccridoses type
    • MPS Type I H
    • MPS Type II
    • MPS Type III A
    • MPS Type IV

  42. In Hastings Classification of Heterotopic Ossification, Type III is
    • Limitation of forearm pronation / supination
    • Limitation of elbow flexion / extension
    • Radiological findings without functional limitation
    • Bony ankylosis of elbow

  43. Which is described as Type I Monteggia equivalent fracture by Bado, except?
    • Fracture of proximal radius
    • Radial neck fracture
    • Anterior dislocation of radial head
    • ulnar diaphysis & olecranon with posterior dislocation of radial head

  44. The Central compartment of the foot contains
    • Flexor digitorum brevis
    • Abductor hallucis
    • Flexor digiti minimi
    • Interosseous muscles

  45. The best radiologic view to assess Scaphoid tubercle fracture is
    • 45 degree oblique semi-pronated
    • Ulnar deviated AP
    • Lateral
    • Neutral AP

  46. The type III periprosthetic Tibia Fractures after Total Knee Arthroplasty, fracture location is
    • Tibial plateau
    • Adjacent to the stem
    • Distal to Prosthesis
    • Tibial tubercle

  47. The criteria for 'Complex Regional Pain Syndrome' in Orthopaedic setting includes all except
    • Non dermatomal neuropathic pain
    • Abnormalities of sweating
    • Swelling
    • Painless joint mobility

  48. In Mirels criteria for risk of pathologic fracture, moderate pain is assigned a variable of
    • 0
    • 1
    • 2
    • 3

  49. In Osteoporosis, BMD T-score is
    • > - 1
    • -1 to -2.5
    • < 2.5
    • > 2.5

  50. The volume of contrast needed for Hip arthroscopy is
    • 10 ml
    • 15 ml
    • 40 ml
    • 50 ml

  51. The type of evidence in Observational study is considered as
    • Very low quality
    • Low quality
    • Moderate quality
    • High quality

  52. In Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS), systolic BP transiently < 90 mm Hg has a score of
    • 0
    • 1
    • 2
    • 3

  53. The Functional Independence Measurement (FIM) score is based on
    • 12 Physical and psychological categories
    • 21 items of basic capacities & higher performance levels
    • 13 motor and 5 cognitive items
    • 3 function scales

  54. Indications for 'Early Total Care' in trauma patients includes
    • Lactate <2 mmol/L
    • Urine output > 0.5 ml/kg/hr
    • Mild hypercapnia
    • Ionotropic stimulation is needed

  55. Cotton Ball spots in the skull is seen in
    • Fibrosarcoma
    • Hyperparathyroidism
    • Myeloma
    • Pagets disease

  56. All are Lipoid histiocytoses, except
    • Nemann-Pick disease
    • Gauches splenomegaly
    • Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
    • Letterer-Siwe disease

  57. The views used in ''FAST'' ultrasound scans include all except
    • longitudinal subxipoid view
    • Right upper quadrant view of abdomen
    • Longitudinal left upper quadrant view of abdomen
    • Bilateral longitudinal thoracic views

  58. The following are false about defined parameters for Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome, except
    • Body temperature > 38 deg C or < 36 deg C
    • PaCO2 > 32 mm Hg
    • Heart rate < 90 beats / min
    • Resp. rate < 20 / min

  59. Serum Inflammatory markers for Medicator activity include all, except
    • Interleukin-1
    • Lipopolysaccharide binding protein
    • Interleukin-18
    • Tumour necrosis factor

  60. Coded value of 3 in Unweighted Reverse Trauma Score as used in Field Triage, has respiratory rate of
    • 6-9 / min
    • > 29 / min
    • 1-5 / min
    • 10-29 / min

  61. The mechanism of action of a 'Position' screw is
    • Used as a fulcrum to direct an intramedullary nail
    • Temporary fixation used with articulated compression device
    • Holds anatomical parts in correct relation to each other
    • A point of fixation used to anchor a wire loop

  62. In Oestern and Tcheme classification of closed fractures, 'superficial abrasion/contusion with mild fracture pattern's is
    • Grade 1
    • Grade 2
    • Grade 3
    • Grade 4

  63. Ultimate tensile strength (Mpa) of cortical bone is
    • 2
    • 10
    • 70
    • 100

  64. The following muscle attaches to the anterior surface of the fibular shaft, except
    • Tibialis posterior
    • Peroneus tertius
    • Extensor Digtorum longus
    • Extensor Hallucis longus

  65. In anterior tibial syndrome, the following are false except
    • Extensor digitorum brevis is involved in the late phase
    • Electromyographic changes in the muscles are absent
    • Not seen in fractures of tibia
    • Ext. digitorum longus is always involved

  66. The following muscles attaches to the posterior diaphysis of Tibia, except
    • Tibialis poeterior
    • Flexor digitorum longus
    • Popliteus
    • Biceps femoris

  67. The following are false about Sarcoidosis, except
    • Reossification of the lesions are likely during healing
    • Bony lesions often expand the cortex
    • Lymphocytes in surrounding tissues are sparse
    • Long bones and vertebrae are frequently involved

  68. The following are true about congenital neurofibromatosis, except
    • Inherited as Autosomal Dominant trait
    • In adults, 5 or more cafe au lait spots of 1.5 cm dia. are diagnostic
    • Kyphoscoliosis with single mid thoracic curve
    • In children café au lait are found most over the buttocks

  69. The following are accessory ossicles in the foot, except
    • Os peroneum
    • Os cuboideum
    • Os tibile externum
    • Os supra tibiale

  70. In classification of Apophyseal injuries of Olecranon in children, Type III A is
    • Incomplete stress fracture
    • Pure apophyseal avulsions
    • Apophyseal-metaphyseal combinations
    • Apophysitis

  71. In proximal radius fractures, 'Reduction injuries' associated with elbow dislocation are classified as
    • Type C
    • Type D
    • Type E
    • Type F

  72. The following attach to Radius, except
    • Abductor Pollicis Longus
    • Anconeus
    • Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
    • Extensior Pollicis Longus

  73. Posterior interosseous nerve supplies all, except
    • Extensior Pollicis Brevis
    • Abductor Pollicis Longus
    • Pronator Quadratus
    • Extensior Pollicis Longus

  74. The acceptable residual angulation in metaphyseal fractures in the sagittal plane in girls aged 9-11 years is
    • 10 deg
    • 15 deg
    • 5 deg
    • 20 deg

  75. Unicameral bone cysts are considered 'active' if they have the following features, except
    • Thick membrane
    • Single cavity
    • Children < 12 years
    • Intralesional pressure > 30 cm H2O

  76. The following are usually involve the posterior elements of the vertebra, except
    • Aneurysmal Bone Cyst
    • Osteoid Osteoma
    • Giant Cell Tumour
    • Osteochondroma

  77. The peak age in years, for pathologic fracture for Chondroblastoma is
    • 0 - 5
    • 5 - 10
    • 10 - 20
    • 20 - 30

  78. In Glasgow coma scale, ''Eye opening :To speech'' has a score of
    • 2
    • 4
    • 1
    • 3

  79. The dosing schedule of Naproxen (oral) in children is
    • 5-10 mg/kg q 6h
    • 10-15 mg/kg q 6h
    • 5-7.5 mg/kg q 12h
    • 15 mg/kg q 6h

  80. The following is true of Rhabdomyosarcoma, except
    • occurs exclusively in striated muscles
    • Tumour giant cells are seen
    • Cell usually have cross striations
    • Greatest incidence is between 30-60 years of age

  81. 'Navika Sagar Parikrama', a circum-navigation expedition by an all-woman Indian Navy crew, was flagged off on Sept 10, 2017 from which state?
    • Goa
    • Tamil Nadu
    • Gujarat
    • Maharashtra

  82. Who is the Chief Justice of India?
    • Shekhar Basu
    • Dipak Misra
    • Baldev Sharma
    • P.K. Sinha

  83. Who is the father of 'Modern Kerala Renaissance'?
    • Chattampi Swamikal
    • Ayyankali
    • Brahmananda Sivayogi
    • Sree Narayana Guru

  84. Who was the owner of the famous newspaper 'Swadeshabhimani'?
    • Moorkoth Kumaran
    • C.V. Kunjiraman
    • Vakkam Abdul Khadar Maulavi
    • K. Ramakrishna Pillai

  85. Which event led to the Royal Proclamation of July 26, 1859?
    • Vaikom Satyagraha
    • Kuttamkulam Satyagraha
    • Ezhava Memorial
    • Shanar Agitation

  86. Who accepted the pen name 'Kesari'?
    • C.V. Kunjiraman
    • Kandathil Varughese Mappilai
    • Vengayil Kunhiraman Nair
    • Chengalath Kunhirama Menon

  87. Who is regarded as the 'father of political movement' in modern Travancore?
    • G. Parameswaran Pillai
    • R. Ranga Rao
    • N. Raman Pillai
    • Mathu Tharakan

  88. 'Hit Refresh' is a famous book written by _________.
    • Sanjay Jha
    • Sunder Pichai
    • Satya Nadella
    • Arvind Pangarhia

  89. Who authored the work 'Mokshapradipam'?
    • Vagbhatananda
    • Brahmananda Sivayogi
    • Vaikunta Swami
    • Kumara Guru

  90. Nair Service Society (NSS) has been modelled after which organization?
    • Brahma Samaj
    • Arya Samaj
    • Servants of India Society
    • Home Rule League

  91. Who is the Chief of International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
    • Christine Lagarde
    • Paolo Gentiloni
    • James Mattis
    • Htin Kyaw

  92. Article 24 deals with __________.
    • Freedom of conscience
    • Prohibition of employment of children
    • Paying of taxes
    • Right to conserve the language and culture

  93. 'Kazhinja Kalam' is the autobiography of ________.
    • Joseph Mundassery
    • K.P. Kesava Menon
    • E.V. Krishna Pillai
    • A.K. Gopalan

  94. Who authored the novel 'Sarada'?
    • C.V. Raman Pillai
    • Appu Nedungadi
    • O. Chandu Menon
    • K.M. Panikkar

  95. When did Sri Chithira Tirunal Balarama Varma issue his famous Temple Entry Proclamation?
    • Nov. 1, 1936
    • Nov. 12, 1936
    • Nov. 10, 1937
    • Nov. 10, 1938

  96. 'Wagon Tragedy' happened to be a tragic episode of _______.
    • Non-co-operation
    • Paliyam Satyagraha
    • Kuttamkulam Satyagraha
    • Malabar Rebellion

  97. Which article of our Constitution describes India as a 'Union of States'?
    • Article 1
    • Article 2
    • Article 3
    • Article 4

  98. Which country has roped in Bollywood actress Parineeti Chopra as their tourism ambassador?
    • China
    • South Kerala
    • Japan
    • Australia

  99. Under the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana, black money worth _________ was disclosed.
    • Rs. 4,900 crore
    • Rs. 4,500 crore
    • Rs. 4,000 crore
    • Rs. 5,200 crore

  100. Which state assembly has passed the bill on parental care on Sept 15, 2017?
    • Tamil Nadu
    • Mizoram
    • Bihar
    • Assam

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