Assistant Professor in Transfusion Medicine (Blood Bank) 74/2017 Answer Key

blood group

Post : Assistant Professor in Transfusion Medicine (Blood Bank)
Department : Medical Education
Category Code : 74/2017
Qualification : Medical Post Graduate Degree + Three years Teaching Experience + Permanent Registration under State Medical Council
Date of Test : 27-02-2018



  1. Author of the book titled "Experiments on the transfusion of blood by syringe"
    • William Harvey
    • James Blundell
    • Baxton-Hick
    • Richard Lower

  2. First blood bank in India was established at
    • Delhi
    • Calcutta
    • Pune
    • Bombay

  3. AIDS cases are reported first in the year
    • 1960
    • 1971
    • 1981
    • 1980

  4. World's first hospital blood bank at cook county hospital, Chicago was began by
    • James Blundell
    • Fantus
    • Mollison
    • Ottenberg

  5. Professional Blood donation banned in India since
    • January 1, 1999
    • January 1, 1997
    • January 1, 1998
    • January 1, 1996

  6. Government of India made test for Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) mandatory by notifying in drugs and cosmetic act on _________.
    • 1991
    • 1985
    • 1989
    • 1990

  7. License of Blood storage centre is valid for
    • 3 years
    • 2 years
    • 5 years
    • 1 year

  8. National voluntary blood donation day October 1st is in memory of
    • Dr. J.G. Jolly
    • Karl Landsteiner
    • William Harvey
    • Wiener Klinische

  9. Govt. of India published the National Blood policy in the year
    • 2002
    • 2000
    • 1999
    • 2001

  10. Cycle of disaster management include
    • Preparedness
    • Response
    • Recovery
    • All of these

  11. Approved additive solutions for RBC storage are all except
    • AS-1
    • AS-2
    • AS-3
    • AS-4
    Question error

  12. Frozen RBC can be stored up to
    • 10 years
    • 25 years
    • 5 years
    • One year

  13. Biochemical composition of RBC membrane is
    • 52% protein, 40% lipid and 8% carbohydrate
    • 40% protein, 52% lipid and 8% carbohydrate
    • 52% carbohydrate, 40% lipid and 8% protein
    • None of these

  14. Minimum hemoglobin value required to accept an adult as a blood donor is
    • 12 gm/dl
    • 12.5 gm/dl
    • 13 gm/dl
    • 11.5 gm/dl

  15. Expiry date of irradiated platelet is
    • 1 day
    • 3 days
    • 7 days
    • No change from original expiration date

  16. ABO gene locus is in chromosome
    • 9q34.2
    • 19p13.3
    • 6p24.2
    • 4q28-q31

  17. Latest included blood group is ISBT is
    • LAN
    • VEL
    • AUG
    • FORS

  18. Compatible IV solution that can be administered through the same transfusion gel is _________.
    • Ringer lactate
    • 20% dextrose
    • Plasmalyte A
    • 10% dextrose

  19. Which of the following antibodies is most likely to be naturally occurring
    • Anti K
    • Anti M
    • Anti e
    • Anti JKa

  20. Of the following a non carbohydrate antigen is
    • H
    • Lewis
    • I
    • Rh

  21. A null phenotype of RBCs resistant/delayed lysis by 2 m urea
    • Fy (a-b-)
    • Le (a-b-)
    • JK (a-b-)
    • Co (a-b-)

  22. Half life of Hydroxy Ethyl Starch (HES)
    • 6 hrs
    • 12 hrs
    • 24 hrs
    • 48 hrs

  23. Super transfusion protocol in thalassemic children recommended hemoglobin target as
    • 8-9 gm/dl
    • 9-10 gm/dl
    • 11-12 gm/dl
    • 12-13 gm/dl

  24. Focus of oxygen sensor in foetus is
    • Kidney
    • Liver
    • Carotid sinus
    • Spleen

  25. Approximately at ___________ age children attain the adult value of PT, aPTT and INR
    • 6 years
    • 10 years
    • 8 years
    • 16 years

  26. False statement about CD44 glycoprotein
    • Present on most of the tissues
    • Minor component of RBC membrane
    • Involved in T and B cell activation
    • Involved in WBC adhesion activities

  27. One transfusion set can be used for multiple transfusions up to
    • 6 hrs
    • 4 hrs
    • 12 hrs
    • 24 hrs

  28. Best filter to transfuse leuco reduced and irradiated single donor plasma is
    • Standard blood filter
    • Macroaggregate filter
    • Leuco reduction filter
    • Irradiation filter

  29. Anticoagulant commonly used in Apheresis procedure
    • CPD
    • ACD
    • CPDA
    • EDTA

  30. This reagent is not used to enhance antigen antibody reaction
    • DTT
    • Polybrene
    • PEG
    • Ficin

  31. Refrigerated whole blood reduces the transmissions of
    • Hepatitis A
    • Hepatitis B
    • Hepatitis C
    • Syphilis

  32. Blood group antigen that is not enlisted in the routine antibody identification panel is
    • M
    • I
    • Lea
    • JKa

  33. In large volume neonatal transfusions nephrotoxicity is due to the metabolite
    • Sodium metaphosphate
    • Adenosine dioxamine
    • 1, 4-dioxy chloroquine
    • 2, 8-dioxy adenine

  34. In preterm infants Kernicterus starts when the serum bilirubin level is
    • 5-8 mg/dl
    • 8-12 mg/dl
    • 20-30 mg/dl
    • 19-27 mg/dl
    Question error

  35. Albumen treatment is not indicated in
    • Burns
    • Shock
    • Cachexia
    • Plasmapheresis

  36. Transplantation of porcine heart valve to a man is an example of
    • Syngenic transplant
    • Xenogenic transplant
    • Allogenic transplant
    • Autologous transplant

  37. 5% Albumen as a plasma volume expander has a half life of
    • One day
    • 12 hrs
    • 16 hrs
    • 8 hrs
    Question error

  38. Granulocyte components to be transfused within _____________ hrs after collection.
    • 8 hrs
    • 24 hrs
    • 48 hrs
    • 6 hrs

  39. An ideal blood substitute have the following characteristic except
    • Increased availability
    • Long shelf life
    • Universal compatibility
    • Infectious chance as blood products

  40. Blood warmer use is not indicated in
    • Neonatal exchange transfusion
    • Patients with cold aggulutinins
    • Rapid transfusion through central venous catheter
    • Rapid transfusion in children

  41. "Leap frog" technique relate to the context of
    • Apheresis plasma collection
    • Autologous transfusion
    • Irradiation of blood products
    • Pathogen inactivation of blood products

  42. Hyper coagulable state is associated with all except
    • Antithromobin deficiency
    • Increased protein S
    • Factor V Leiden mutation
    • F XII deficiency

  43. Post haematopoietic stem cell transplant prophylaxis is given to combat
    • Herpes simplex virus
    • Cytomegalovirus
    • Epstein Barr virus
    • All of these

  44. During preparative regimen in a bidirectional incompatible bone marrow transplant following blood group plasma can only be transfused
    • AB blood group
    • Donor blood group
    • Recipient blood group
    • O blood group

  45. Hematological malignancy associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia is
    • Acute Lymphoblastic leukemia
    • Chronic myeloid leukemia
    • Acute Lymphoblastic leukemia and Chronic myeloid leukemia
    • Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

  46. Blood group system related to McLeod syndrome is
    • Kell
    • Kidd
    • Duffy
    • Lewis

  47. Strategies for augmenting cell dose in umbilical cord stem cell transplantation include all except
    • Exvivo expansion of umbilical cord blood stem and progenitor cells
    • Intra bone marrow injection
    • Thyroid hormone treatment
    • Multiple unit umbilical cord blood transplantation

  48. Percentage of red cell suspension used in column agglutination technique is
    • 1%
    • 5%
    • 10%
    • 40%

  49. 'Witebsky' test is used for
    • Irregular antibody detection
    • Secretory status
    • Compatibility test
    • Transfusion reactions

  50. Elution method good for eluting IgG antibody
    • Heat elution
    • Glycine EDTA elution
    • Both Heat elution and Glycine EDTA elution
    • None of these

  51. Auto antibody specificity in PCH patients is
    • I
    • i
    • P
    • pk

  52. Source of Erythropoeitin
    • Renal interstitial fibroblasts
    • Renal tubular epithelial cells
    • Peri sinusoidal cells in liver
    • All of these

  53. Antibody in renal patients undergoing dialysis with formaldehyde sterilized machine
    • Anti M
    • Anti N
    • Anti P
    • Anti S

  54. A positive direct coombs test can be due to
    • Auto antibodies to intrinsic red cell antigen
    • Allo antibody against transfused red cell antigen
    • Drug induced antibodies
    • All of these

  55. Sulf hydryl reagents are all except
    • DAT
    • DTT
    • 2 ME
    • AET

  56. Colour of the label used for autologous transfusions units
    • Pink
    • Orange
    • Green
    • Blue

  57. A donor experiences facial muscle twitch during platelet pheresis, what should be done?
    • Detach ACD line 
    • Decrease return rate
    • Add saline to the line
    • Stop the procedure

  58. Quality indicator mandated for accredited blood banks to monitor and report every 6 months
    • Donor deferral rate
    • Donor reaction rate
    • Percentage of components prepared
    • Wastage rate

  59. Recommended temperature for storage of cryopreserved umbilical cord blood cells
    • ≤-150°C
    • ≤-210°C
    • ≤100°C
    • ≤-80°C

  60. Tests for QC of peripheral blood stem cells include
    • Clonogenic assay
    • Cell viability
    • Sterility testing
    • All of these

  61. A peripheral stem cell donor can't donate blood/apheresis for _____________.
    • 1 year
    • 6 months
    • 3 months
    • 3 years

  62. Advantages of Apheresis derived blood components except
    • Reduced donor exposure
    • Matching of donor to patient is not required
    • Higher quality produced
    • Reduced donor reactions

  63. Maximum volume of blood collected from a blood donor should not exceed
    • 10.5 ml/kg body wt
    • 11 ml/kg body wt
    • 12.5 ml/kg body wt
    • 12 ml/kg body wt

  64. Minimum area required to set up an Apheresis room
    • 50 sq.m
    • 10 sq.m
    • 25 sq.m
    • 100 sq.m

  65. Indication for red cell exchange in malaria is
    • Parasitemia more than 30% in the absence of clinical complications
    • Pregnant woman with malaria
    • Parasitemia more than 10% with response to treatment
    • Parasitemia more than 10% in the absence of clinical complications

  66. Kymriah is ____________.
    • Drug used in ALL
    • Blood substitute
    • Reagent
    • Mixed field reaction

  67. Contents in ZZAP reagent
    • DTT + Albumin
    • DTT + Ficin
    • PEG + Ficin
    • DTT + ZME

  68. In which of the following situation a negative control with albumin is mandatory in Rh typing?
    • Use of high protein reagents
    • Use of low protein reagents
    • Use of monoclonal antisera
    • Use of polyclonal antisera

  69. Rise in temperature in FNHTR
    • >2°C
    • >1°C
    • >3°C
    • None of these

  70. Infectious agent transmitted by white cells in a blood product
    • HBV
    • Tryponemia pallidum
    • Plasmodium malaria
    • Cytomegalovirus

  71. All are clinical features of iron overload
    • Heart failure
    • Diabetes
    • Hyperthyroidism
    • Liver failure

  72. Which of the following blood group gene is located in chromosome I?
    • Kell
    • Kidd
    • Duffy
    • Lutheran

  73. Maximum age for a first time blood donor
    • 50 yrs
    • 60 yrs
    • 40 yrs
    • 45 yrs

  74. Patient with body surface area of 2 m2 is transfused with 4 × 10" platelet, initial platelet count of 5000/μl and post transfusion count 25000/μl. What would be the corrected count increment?
    • 5000/μl
    • 10,000/μl
    • 20,000/μl
    • 8000/μl

  75. Most important antibody causing TRALI?
    • HNA-3a
    • HNA-2a
    • HNA-1a
    • None of these

  76. Routine premedication to transfusion recipient is
    • Advised
    • Not advised
    • Optional
    • None of these

  77. Lethal triad of massive transfusion
    • Anemia, coagulopathy and hypothermia
    • Coagulopathy, hypothermia, acidosis
    • Hypothermia, acidosis, anemia
    • Anemia, coagulopathy, acidosis

  78. Massive transfusion with stored citrated blood cause
    • Left shift of O2 dissociation curve
    • Right shift of O2 dissociation curve
    • Increase 2, 3 DPG
    • None of these

  79. Not used as an adjacent in transfusion therapy for trauma and burns patient
    • ε amino caproic acid
    • Tranexamic acid
    • Methyl cellulose
    • None of these

  80. ______________ substance is present in hydatid cyst fluid.
    • Leb
    • Tja
    • Pk
    • Lex

  81. The day which is referred to as the day of commencement of Indian constitution?
    • 26th November 1949
    • 13th December 1947
    • 26th January 1950
    • 26th January 1930

  82. The term 'Secular' is added to the Preamble of the Indian constitution by the
    • 42nd Amendment
    • 46th Amendment
    • 73rd Amendment
    • 17th Amendment

  83. The statutory official in India who can participate in the Lok Sabha discussion but cannot vote
    • Chairman Finance Commission
    • Chief Election Commission
    • Comptroller and Auditor General
    • Attorney General

  84. The division of powers between the Union and State governments is provided under
    • Article 246
    • Article 280
    • Article 276
    • Article 270

  85. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was passed in
    • 2000
    • 2002
    • 2001
    • 2004

  86. The first protestant missionary to arrive in Kerala
    • John Cox
    • Ringeltaube
    • Charles Meed
    • Henry Baker

  87. The founder of Prathyaksha Raksha Daiva Sabha was
    • Poykayil Yohannan
    • Abraham Malpan
    • Pampadi John Joseph
    • Kuriakose Chavara

  88. Paliyam Satyagraha was officially inaugurated by
    • A.K. Gopalan
    • P.K. Chathan Master
    • K. Kelappan
    • C. Kesavan

  89. The royal proclaimation of 1859, granting the Nadar women right to cover their upper body was issued by
    • Sri Chithira Thirunal Bala Rama Varma
    • Uthram Thirunal Marthanda Varma
    • Karthika Thirunal Lakshmi Bai
    • Moolam Thirunal Rama Varma

  90. The Malayalam News paper edited by Moorkoth Kumaran
    • Samadarsi
    • Prabhatham
    • Mithavadi
    • Malayalee

  91. Samastha Kerala Pusthakalaya Samiti was started in
    • Kozhikkode
    • Kottayam
    • Thrissur
    • Palakkad

  92. The founder of the women's magazine 'Sreemathi'
    • Akkamma Cheriyan
    • Anna Chandi
    • Arya Pallam
    • Lalitha Prabhu

  93. The Kerala Pulaya Mahasabha was established by
    • Pandit Karuppan
    • Sahodaran Ayyappan
    • Ayya Vaikundar
    • P.K. Chathan Master

  94. The social reformer who penned the prayer 'Daivadasakam'
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Chattampi Swamikal
    • Brahmananda Sivayogi
    • Vagbhadananda

  95. 'Ethirppu' is the biography of
    • Ponkunnam Varkey
    • C. Krishna Pillai
    • Kesav Dev
    • S.K. Pottekkad

  96. The first Malayalam drama was written by
    • Kodungallur Kunjikuttan Thampuran
    • Kerala Varma Valiya Koyi Thampuran
    • Kodungallur Kochunni Thampuran
    • A.R. Raja Raja Varma

  97. The first News Paper in English in South India was established by (Madras Standard)
    • T.R. Krishnaswami Iyer
    • T.K. Madhavan
    • Govindan Parameswaran Pillai
    • Abdul Khader Moulavi

  98. The first carbon free state in India
    • Himachal Pradesh
    • Uttar Pradesh
    • Sikkim
    • Madhya Pradesh

  99. PMUY (Prantan Mantri Ujjwal Yogana) stands for the Central Government Scheme of
    • Free electrification
    • Free sanitation facility
    • Free house building
    • Free LPG connection

  100. The first state in India to pass the motion in Legislative Assembly supporting demonitisation of rupees 1000 and 500 bank notes
    • Madhya Pradesh
    • Chattisgarh
    • Assam
    • Gujrat

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