Senior Lecturer in Ophthalmology 149/2017, 15/2017 Answer Key

Ophthalmology eye color

Post : Senior Lecturer in Ophthalmology
Department : Medical Education
Category Code : 149/2017, 150/2017
Qualification : M.S(Ophthalmology)/DNB (Ophthalmology) + Permanent Registration under State Medical Council
Date of Test : 21-02-2018



  1. Which of the following condition is not associated with disc oedema?
    • Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
    • Papillitis
    • Central retinal vein occlusion
    • Retrobulbar neuritis

  2. Which of the following is not an aetiological factor of contact lens induced papillary conjunctivitis?
    • Mechanical trauma
    • Meibomian gland dysfunction
    • Viral infection
    • Hypersensitivity

  3. Which of the following corneal ulcer produces a hemorrhagic hypopyon?
    • Clostridium
    • Corynebacteria
    • Pneumococci
    • Pseudomonas

  4. Which of the following is the primary action of superior rectus muscle?
    • Depression
    • Intorsion
    • Abduction
    • Elevation

  5. Willebrands knee has
    • Inferior fibres
    • Inferotemporal fibres
    • Inferonasal fibres
    • Superonasal fibres

  6. Which of the following is true about acquired colour vision defect except?
    • No specific spectral region of colour discrimination loss
    • Marked dependence on target size and illumination
    • Variable result on various colour vision test
    • No change in deficit over time

  7. Ocular associations of congenital myopia all except
    • Convergent squint
    • Glaucoma
    • Microphthalmos
    • Cataract
    Question error

  8. Following are the other names of retinoscopy except
    • Skiascopy
    • Shadow test
    • Abberoscopy
    • Korescopy

  9.      Following are features of antireflective coating except
    • Refractive index should be squire root of that of lens
    • Thickness should be half the wavelength of light
    • Magnesium fluoride is used in high powered lens
    • None of these

  10. Discolouration of photochromic glasses is due to the presence of
    • Borosilicate
    • Aluminophosphate
    • Silver halide
    • All of these

  11. Which of the following is true about SRK-1 formula?
    • First generation formula
    • Regression formula
    • Good for axial length between 22-24.5 mm
    • All these

  12. What is the power of stand mounted magnifier?
    • Less than 5 D
    • 5-60 D
    • 60-70 D
    • None of these

  13. Which of the following is an indication for advanced corneal surface ablation procedures?
    • Astigmatism upto 4 D
    • Myopia of 8-10 D
    • Hyperopia of 4-5 D
    • All these

  14. How much increase in intra ocular pressure occur during applanation tonometry?
    • 5%
    • 0.1%
    • 3%
    • 2%

  15. Inter observer variability of Goldmann applanation tonometry is
    • 3 to 4 mmHg
    • 4 to 5 mmHg
    • 0 to 3 mmHg
    • 5 to 7 mmHg

  16. Most common cause for bilateral proptosis in adults is
    • Cavernous hemangioma
    • Thyroid orbitopathy
    • Pseudotumour
    • Metastasis

  17. Following are the causes of prominent corneal nerves
    • Keratoconus
    • Neurofibromatosis
    • Refsum syndrome
    • All these

  18. 'T' sign in B scan is seen in
    • Posterior Scleritis
    • Papillitis
    • Posterior uveitis
    • All these

  19. A 10 year old child presenting with chronic iridocyclitis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
    • Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
    • Multiple sclerosis
    • Retinoblastoma
    • Leukemia

  20. Double ring sign is seen in
    • ONH hypoplasia
    • Coloboma
    • Papilledema
    • Myopia

  21. Following are the vascular signs of papilledema except
    • Hyperemia of the disc
    • Flame shaped haemorrhages
    • Cotton wool spots
    • Masking of peripapillary vessels

  22. Which of the following condition causes light near dissociation except?
    • Myesthenia gravis
    • Parinaud's syndrome
    • Adie's syndrome
    • Neurosyphils

  23. Name the organism which can penetrate intact cornea?
    • Listeria
    • Pseudomonas
    • Epstein-Barr Virus
    • Salmonella

  24. Which is the most common primary malignant tumour of orbit in children?
    • Malignant optic nerve glioma
    • Meningioma
    • Rhabdomyosarcoma
    • Lymphoma

  25. Which is the most common visually significant congenital cataract?
    • Blue dot
    • Posterior capsular
    • Diffuse in cellular cataract
    • Zonular cataract

  26. Indications for pars plana vitrectomy in diabetic retinopathy are all except
    • Severe nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy
    • Persistant vitreous hemorrhage
    • Vitreomacular tractions
    • Tractional retinal detachment threatening macula

  27. Which number of amsler grid helps in distinguishing scotoma from metamorphopsia?
    • Chart 2
    • Chart 3
    • Chart 4
    • Chart 6

  28. Window defect in FFA is seen in which of the following condition?
    • Full thickness macular hole
    • Central serous retinochoroidopathy
    • Cystoid macular edema
    • Occult CNVM

  29. Brush field spots are seen in which systemic condition?
    • Neurofibromatosis
    • Sturge Weber syndrome
    • Down syndrome
    • Marfan syndrome

  30. Which structure is targeted in pattern ERG?
    • Ganglion cells
    • Bipolar cells
    • Cones
    • Rods

  31. What is the normal AC/A ratio?
    • 3-5 prism diopter
    • 7 prism diopter
    • 10 prism diopter
    • 15 prism diopter

  32. Monocular elevation deficit syndrome is characterized by
    • Hypertropia
    • Ipsilateral ptosis
    • Tight superior rectus
    • All these

  33. Which is the most common cause of AIDS related neurophthalmic lesion?
    • Neurosyphilis
    • Cryptococcal meningitis
    • CMV encephalitis
    • Herpes zoster encephalitis

  34. All are features of Weber syndrome except
    • Contralateral hemiparesis
    • Contralateral sensation loss
    • Ptosis
    • Restriction of adduction

  35. Reduplicated cataract is seen in
    • Corneal ulcer
    • Lowes syndrome
    • Ophthalmia neonatoram
    • Fabry's disease

  36. Which bacteria produces ulcus serpens?
    • Pseudomonas
    • Gonococci
    • Nocardia
    • Pneumococci

  37. Following are causes of heterochromic iris
    • Melanoma iris
    • Fuch' sheterochromiciridocyclitis
    • Siderosis
    • All these

  38. Poly chromatic lustre in cataract is seen in
    • Myotonic dystrophy
    • Complicated cataract
    • Galactosemia
    • Diabetes mellitus

  39. Anisocoria more in light is due to
    • Unilateral optic nerve diseases
    • Oculomotor nerve palsy
    • Horner's syndrome
    • All these

  40. Christmas tree cataract is seen in
    • Hypoparathiroidism
    • Werner's syndrome
    • Atopic cataract
    • Myotonic dystrophy

  41. Lander's sign is seen in
    • Multiple sclerosis
    • Frosted branch angitis
    • Tuberculosis
    • Sarcoidosis

  42. The following statements are correct about photorecepters except
    • 125 million rods present
    • Cone density increases at oraserrata
    • Rods are densest below the disc
    • Outer segment actively participate in rapid metabolism

  43. The following are true about cytomegalovirus retinitis in HIV patients except
    • Pizza pie retinopathy is characterized by retinal necrosis
    • 25% patients asymptomatic
    • Indolent form occurs in peripheral retina
    • Frosted branch angitis is uncommon

  44. According to Dahan et al approach what is the power of intraocular lens to be used in a child with axial length of 22 mm?
    • 28 D
    • 26 D
    • 24 D
    • 23 D

  45. Which of the following is correct about vossius ring is
    • Size is that of normal pupil
    • Size is that of miotic pupil
    • Size that of mydriatic pupil
    • Size not related to size of pupil

  46. Incidence of neovascular of irisin CRAO
    • 10%
    • 18%
    • 26%
    • < 5%

  47. MC cause for isolated cilioretinal artery obstruction in young person
    • Collagen vascular d/s
    • Congenital heart d/s
    • Valvular heart d/s
    • Stickers's d/s

  48. Clinical signs of choroidal melanoma are
    • Dome shaped mass
    • Collar stud tumour
    • Sentinal vessels
    • All these

  49. Which systemic diseases are associated with congenital hypertrophy of retinal pigment epithelium?
    • Gardner syndrome
    • Turcot syndrome
    • Familial adenomatous polyposi
    • All these

  50. Which of the following is included in advanced diabetic eye disease except?
    • Vitreous haemorrhage
    • Macular ishchemia
    • Tractional retinal detachment
    • Neovascular glaucoma

  51. Siegrist streaks in hypertensive choroidopahy indicates
    • Fibrinoid necrosis
    • Ischemic necrosis
    • Choroidal vasoconstriction
    • None of these

  52. Purtscher like retinopathy is seen in which of the following condition?
    • Amniotic fluid embolism
    • Carotid insufficiency
    • Retinitis pigmentosa
    • None of these

  53. What is the size of softdrusen in age related macular degeneration?
    • 63 microns
    • 63-125 microns
    • larger than 125
    • None of these
    Question error

  54. What is the excitation peak for fluorescein?
    • 490 nm
    • 530 nm
    • 420 nm
    • 560 nm

  55. Name one recognition acuity test
    • Dot visual acuity test
    • Bock candy bead test
    • Schwarting metronome test
    • Sjogren's hand test

  56. Which of the following are features of Refsum's disease?
    • Retinitis pigmentosa
    • Salt and pepper retinal pigmentation
    • Cataract
    • All these

  57. Waardenburg syndrome is characterized by
    • Myopia
    • Hypochromic iris
    • Cataract
    • Optic atrophy

  58. 'Pink eye' is a feature of which disease?
    • Farber syndrome
    • Rubella syndrome
    • Albinism
    • None of these

  59.         Which of the following is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in retina?
    • Dopamine
    • Serotonin
    • Glutamate
    • Glycine

  60. Which of the following organism causes cracked windshield appearance of corneal ulcer?
    • Acanthamoeba
    • Corynbacteria
    • Nocardia
    • Clostridium

  61. Which of the following is correct about blood supply of optic nerve except?
    • Ophthalmic artery
    • Prelaminar region is supplied by short posterior ciliary artery
    • Orbital part is by pial network from posterior ciliary artery
    • Intracanalicular segment is not in the water shed zone

  62. Which statement is correct about optic chiasm except?
    • Lies over the body of sphenoid
    • Above diaphragm sellae in fixed chiasma
    • Prefixed chiasma lies above tuberculamsellae
    • 70% cases are postfixed

  63. Push up test is used to measure
    • Near point of accommodation
    • Subjective retinoscopy
    • Squint
    • None of these

  64. Following is a hydrogel lens material
    • HEMA-VP
    • PMMA
    • Silicone
    • Cellulose acetate butyrate

  65. Enlarged superior ophthalmic vein is seen in
    • Pappilledema
    • Carotico cavernous fistula
    • Meningioma
    • Exophthalmos

  66. Which of the following is not a cause for pseudo papilledema?
    • Hypermetropia
    • ONH drusen
    • Myelinated nerve fibres
    • None of these

  67. What is Urrets-zavalia syndrome?
    • Mydriatic pupil following implantation of glaucoma drainage device
    • Miotic pupil following deep anterior lamellar keratoplasty in keratoconus
    • Mydriated pupil following penetrating keratoplasty in keratoconus
    • None of these

  68. Which of the following is true about conjunctival melanoma?
    • Metastasis occurs first in parotid or submandibular lymph node
    • Tumour thicker than 1 mm carries greater risk of dissemination
    • 1/3 cases develops from primary acquired melanosis
    • None of these

  69. Which of the following drug causes whorl like keratopathy except?
    • Amiodarone
    • Diazepam
    • Indomethacin
    • Chloroquine

  70. Which is true about optic nerve glioma except?
    • Seen in the first decade
    • Malignant optic nerve glioma affect adult males
    • 75-80% associated with neurofibromatosis
    • Observation is the treatment if good present

  71. Watzke Allen test helps in diagnosis of which condition
    • AMD
    • Best disease
    • Macular hole
    • Oguchi's disease

  72. Prentice's formula is used for calculation of ___________
    • Focal length of lens
    • Prismatic effect due to decentration
    • Cardinal data of eye
    • Magnification produced by lens

  73. Which of the following is a direct gonioscope except?
    • Allen Thorpe gonioprism
    • Huskin Barkan's lens
    • Richardson Shaffer's goniolens
    • Worth goniolens

  74. What is the first sign of acoustic neuroma?
    • Hearing loss
    • Decreased corneal sensation
    • Defective vision
    • Diplopia

  75. Which of the following shows wagon wheel scar?
    • Congenital toxoplasmosis
    • Acquired toxoplasmosis
    • Toxocariasis
    • Onchocerciasis

  76. Which of the following is true about peripheral ulcerative keratitis?
    • Severe ulceration or thinning
    • No involvement of sclera
    • Contact lens cornea in end stage disease
    • Precede collagen vascular disease
    Question error

  77. The different display formats in corneal topographic data include all except
    • Numerical power plot
    • Quad map
    • Keratometry view
    • Profile view

  78. Which of the following is a diagnostic indication of contact lens except?
    • Gonioscopy
    • Electroretinography
    • Glaucoma
    • Fundus photography

  79. Which is true about bull's eye lens?
    • Refractive multifocal lens
    • Diffractive lens
    • Accommodative lens
    • None of these

  80. Refractive lenticule extraction (RELEX) is a
    • Type of refractive surgery
    • Using femtosecond laser
    • In SMILE extraction of refractive lenticule is done
    • All these

  81. Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana was initiated in the year
    • 1990
    • 1985
    • 2000
    • 2010

  82. The state having lowest literacy rate as per census of 2011 is
    • Jharkhand
    • Rajasthan
    • Haryana
    • Bihar

  83. The famous Dal Lake is situated in which of the following states?
    • Jammu and Kashmir
    • Odisha
    • Himachal Pradesh
    • Karnataka

  84. The Railway Staff College is situated at
    • New Delhi
    • Hyderabad
    • Vadodara
    • Chennai

  85. Who won the 100 metres women's race in the World Athletic Championships in 2017?
    • Thori Bovi
    • Dafne Shippers
    • Mary Joscy
    • Florence Griffith

  86. India shares maximum land boarders with which of the following countries?
    • China
    • Bangladesh
    • Pakistan
    • Myanmar

  87. Number of Supreme Court judges in India excluding Chief Justice
    • 25
    • 30
    • 24
    • 26

  88. Who among the following is recently appointed as UNICEF goodwill Ambassador?
    • Palbinder Kaur
    • Nikita Hari
    • Mrinal Sambat
    • Lilly Singh

  89. The constitutional provision for G.S.T. is given in
    • Article 256
    • Article 246
    • Article 266 A
    • Article 240

  90. The Founder of Dharmabhada Sangam was
    • Kumaranasan
    • Swami Bodhananda
    • K.P. Karuppan
    • Swami Ananda Theertha

  91. Basha Poshini Sabha was founded in the year
    • 1891
    • 1900
    • 1896
    • 1911

  92. The author of the Book 'Jeevitha Samaram'
    • T.K. Madhavan
    • K. Kelappan
    • C. Kesavan
    • C. Krishnan

  93. Famous Fort William is located at
    • Delhi
    • Chennai
    • Mumbai
    • Kolkata

  94. India's population reached a billion mark in the year
    • 2000
    • 1996
    • 1998
    • 2002

  95. Who described Gandhiji as 'half naked Fakir'?
    • Clement Atlee
    • Winston Churchill
    • Lord Mount Batten
    • Straford Cripps

  96. How many times the preamble of the Indian Constitution has been amended so far?
    • Once
    • Twice
    • Thrice
    • Four times

  97. Which struggle is known as Upper Cloth Rebellion?
    • Kallumala Samaram
    • Paliyam Satyagraha
    • Channar Agitation
    • Thol Viraku Samaram

  98. The Youngest President of India was
    • Ram Nath Kovind
    • Neelam Sanjeev Reddy
    • K.R. Narayanan
    • Prathiba Patil

  99. The Author of the Book 'Moksha Pradeepam' was
    • K.P. Karuppan
    • Ayyankali
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Brahmananda Sivayogi

  100. The Manjeri Political Conference of Congress in 1920 was presided over by
    • Mrs. Annie Besant
    • T. Prakasham
    • Kasthuri Ranga Iyengar
    • K. Kelappan

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