Assistant Professor in Infectious Diseases 72/2017 Answer Key 59/2018

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Post: Assistant Professor in Infectious Diseases
Department: Medical Education Service
Category Code: 72/17
Qualification: DNB; MBBS
Question Paper Code: 59/18
Date of Test: 10-05-2018




  1. Paradoxical carrier is defined as
    • A carrier who has never suffered from the disease caused by the pathogen.
    • A carrier status for more than 6 months duration.
    • A carrier who acquires the pathogen from another carrier.
    • None of these

  2. Causative organism for valley fever is
    • Blastomyces dermatitidis
    • Histoplasma capsulatum
    • Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis
    • Coccidiodes Immitis

  3. Drug of choice for invasive Aspergillosis
    • Voriconazole
    • Amphotericin deoxycholate
    • Micafungin
    • Liposomal Amphotericin

  4. As per Biomedical waste segregation [BMW] 2016 rules, contaminated recyclable waste should be disposed in
    • Blue cardboard with blue label
    • Yellow bags
    • White punctures proof containers
    • Red bags

  5. Most common organism responsible for sepsis following dog bite is
    • Streptobacillus moniliformis
    • Pasteurella Multocida
    • Capnocytophaga canimorsus
    • Bartonella bacilliformis

  6. Tropical fever syndrome usually associated with sensory neural deafness is
    • Scrub typhus
    • Chikungunya
    • Dengue Haemorrhagic fever
    • Leptospirosis

  7. Urinary antigen test may be useful in the diagnosis of all the following except.
    • Histoplasmosis
    • Pontiac fever
    • Pneumococcal pneumonia
    • Brucellosis

  8. Drug of choice for Methicillin Susceptible Staphylococcus Aureus [MSSA] bacteremia is
    • Cloxacillin
    • Vancomycin
    • Daptomycin
    • Linezoli d

  9. Mutation detected by CB-NAAT[GenXpert] is
    • katG
    • rpoB
    • inhA
    • All of these

  10. Name the organism susceptible to intravenous Polymyxin E.
    • Staphylococcus Aureus.
    • Bacteriodes fragilis.
    • Pseudomonas Aeuroginosa.
    • Serratia Marcescens.

  11. Avian Influenza outbreak in Kuttanad in 2016 was due to
    • H1N1
    • H3N2
    • H5N1
    • H7N2

  12. MERS is caused by
    • Metapneumo virus
    • Orthomyxo virus
    • Paramyxo virus
    • Corona virus

  13. Antibiotics exhibiting concentration dependend bactericidal activity include all the following except
    • Cefuroxime
    • Ciprofloxacin
    • Amikacin
    • Metronidazole

  14. Delhi declaration for AMR[Antimicrobial Resistance] containment was in the year
    • 2011
    • 2017
    • 2015
    • 2013

  15. High level INH resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is due to the presence of mutations in which gene?
    • catG
    • inhA
    • rpoB
    • rrs

  16. Corynebacterium species implicated in prosthetic valve endocarditis.
    • Corynebacterium ulcerans
    • Corynebacterium jeikeium
    • Corynebacterium hofmanni
    • Corynebacterium xerosis

  17. All of the following are features of postpartum clostridium sordelli toxic shock syndrome except
    • Haemoconcentration
    • Lack of purulent discharge
    • High grade fever
    • Peripheral edema and effusion

  18. Route of administration of Zanamivir for H1N1 influenza is
    • Intravenous
    • Oral
    • Inhalation
    • Intramuscular

  19. Viral haemorrhagic fever with case fatality rate of 40 to 50% is
    • Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
    • Kyasanur forest disease
    • Dengue Hemorrhagic fever
    • Yellow fever

  20. Common etiologic agents of infection in splenectomized patients are all except
    • Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
    • Streptococcus pneumoniae
    • Salmonella
    • Haemophilus influenza

  21. All the following statements about meningococcemia are true except
    • Most often affects young children.
    • Rapidly progressive form is usually associated with meningitis.
    • Almost three-quarters of patients will have a rash.
    • Household members of index case are at 400-800 times greater risk of contacting disease than the general population.

  22. Septic shock and bullous hemorrhagic skin lesions after ingestion of contaminated shell fish is associated with
    • Aeromonas hydrophila
    • Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
    • Capnocytophaga canimorsus
    • Vibrio vulnificus

  23. All the following are features of cerebral malaria except
    • Photophobia is rare.
    • Symmetric encephalopathy is typical.
    • Nuchal rigidity is common.
    • Unrecognized infection results in 20 to 30% mortality rate.

  24. All the following statements about infective endocarditis are true except
    • Injection drug users usually develop tricuspid valve endocarditis.
    • Microabscess in brain and meninges occur commonly in streptoccal endocarditis.
    • Endocarditis caused by nutritional variant streptococci is treated with regimen for moderately penicillin resistant streptococci.
    • Sensitivity of Transthoracic echocardiography to detect vegetations is 65%.

  25. Bacterial food poisoning with shortest incubation period is due to
    • Vibrio cholera.
    • Salmonella typhimurium.
    • Staphylococcus aureus.
    • Clostridium Perfringens.

  26. Antibiotic that pose significantly less risk for development of clostridium difficile colitis is
    • Ciprofloxacin
    • Cefuroxime
    • Clindamycin
    • Penicillin

  27. Painless, non-tender, indurated ulcers with firm, non-tender inguinal adenopathy is suggestive of
    • Chancroid
    • Lymphogranuloma venereum
    • Primary syphilis
    • Ureaplasma urealyticum

  28. Which of the following drugs does not require dose adjustment in renal insufficiency?
    • Tenofovir alafenamide
    • Zidovudine
    • Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate
    • Abacavir

  29. Early onset health-care associated pneumonia is usually due to
    • Klebsiella pneumoniae
    • MRSA
    • Streptococcus pneumoniae
    • Acinetobacter baumanni

  30. All the following are components of ventilator associated pneumonia bundle except
    • Elevation of head end of bed to 60°.
    • Daily sedation interruption.
    • Peptic ulcer disease prophylaxis.
    • Deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis.

  31. Infections occurring in recipient within one month of hematopoietic stem cell transplant include all the following except.
    • Candida
    • CMV
    • HSV
    • HHV-6

  32. All the following organisms are susceptible to cotrimoxazole except.
    • Nocardia
    • Cryptosporidium parvum
    • Isospora belli
    • Stenotrophomonas maltophila

  33. All the following drugs can be used in the treatment of CMV pneumonia except.
    • Valacyclovir
    • Foscarnet
    • Cidofovir
    • Ganciclovir

  34. Name the antibiotic that acts by disrupting membrane permeability by electrostatic charge alteration.
    • Tigecycline
    • Fosfomycin
    • Nitrofurantoin
    • Polymyxin B

  35. Serotonin syndrome when coadministered with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors is observed with.
    • Clarithromycin
    • Aztreonam
    • Linezolid
    • Cefepime

  36. Concurrence of pneumococcal pneumonia,endocarditis and meningitis is referred to as
    • Austrian's triad
    • Beck's triad
    • Dieulafoy's triad
    • Anderson triad

  37. All the following are TRUE about diphtheria EXCEPT.
    • Pseudomembrane in diphtheria is tightly adherent to underlying tissues.
    • High grade fever.
    • Diphtheria antitoxin cannot neutralize cell bound toxin.
    • Diphtheria neuropathy is a non-inflammatory demyelinating disorder mediated by exotoxin.

  38. The process by which Plasmodium falciparum infected RBCs adher to uninfected RBCs is referred to as
    • Rosette
    • Cytoadherence
    • Agglutination
    • Emperipolesis

  39. Which of the following is not usually seen in children with severe malaria?
    • Deep jaundice
    • Metabolic acidosis
    • Hypoglycemia
    • Severe Anaemia

  40. Organism implicated in granulomatosis infantiseptica is
    • Bartonella henselae
    • Brucella abortus
    • Coxiella Burnetti
    • Listeria monocytogenes

  41. All the following statements are TRUE about tetanus EXCEPT
    • Median time after onset of injury is seven days.
    • Neonatal tetanus is usually generalized.
    • Cerebrospinal fluid examination shows lymphocytic pleocytosis.
    • Ablett classification is used to asses clinical severity of tetanus.

  42. All the followings drugs can be used in treatment of mucormycosis except
    • Amphotericin deoxycholate
    • Posaconazole
    • Ravuconazole
    • Micafungin

  43. Modified Hodge test is used to detect resistance to
    • Macrolides
    • Aminoglycosides
    • Quinolones
    • Carbapenems

  44. Heterophile negative mononucleosis is seen in all EXCEPT
    • Toxoplasmosis.
    • HIV
    • CMV
    • EBV

  45. All the following statements are TRUE about food-borne botulism EXCEPT
    • Paralytic ileus is common.
    • Symmetric ascending paralysis is characteristic
    • Fever is usually absent.
    • Incubation period depends on toxin dose.

  46. Spontaneous non-traumatic myonecrosis in patients with carcinoma of gastrointestinal tract is usually due to
    • Clostridium perfringens
    • Clostridium septicum
    • Streptococcus bovis
    • Clostridium ramosum

  47. All the following drugs can be used for chemoprophylaxis against meningococcal disease EXCEPT.
    • Rifampin.
    • Ciprofloxacin.
    • Azithromycin.
    • Cotrimoxazole.

  48. All the following statements are TRUE about Gonococcal infections EXCEPT
    • Acute urethritis is the most common manifestation of gonorrhea in males.
    • Axial skeleton is usually involved in gonococcal arthritis.
    • Clinical manifestations of gonococcal urethritis are more severe than those of non-gonococcal urethritis.
    • Menstruation is a risk factor for gonococcal arthritis.

  49. Presence of gram negative coccobacilli in CSF is suggestive of meningitis due to
    • Pneumococci
    • Haemophilus Influenzae
    • Meningococci
    • Listeria monocytogenes

  50. All the following statements about nocardiosis are TRUE EXCEPT.
    • Nocardia Asteroides complex is the most commonly isolated nocardia species from clinical specimens.
    • Risk of disseminated disease is higher in patients with deficient humoral immunity.
    • Nocardia farcinica is more virulent and prone to dissemination.
    • Sulfonamides are the drugs of choice for Nocardiosis.

  51. All the following statements are TRUE about actinomycosis EXCEPT
    • Pelvic Actinomycosis is commonly associated with IUCD use.
    • Mediastinal infection is uncommon.
    • Actinomyces israelii is not an acid-fast organism.
    • Sulfur granules are pathognomonic of actinomycosis.

  52. All the following statements are TRUE about military tuberculosis EXCEPT
    • Cryptic Miliary Tuberculosis is seen in infants.
    • Non-reactive military tuberculosis is an acute septicemic form.
    • Choroid tubercles are seen in upto 30% of cases.
    • Sputum smear microscopy is negative in up to 80% of cases.

  53. Lucio's phenomenon is seen in
    • Treated lepromatous leprosy.
    • Untreated lepromatous leprosy.
    • Treated tuberculoid leprosy.
    • Untreated tuberculoid leprosy.

  54. All the following Non-tuberculous mycobacteria are rapid growers except.
    • M.chelonae
    • M.Abscessus
    • M.Fortuitum
    • M.Kansasii

  55. Which antimycobacterial agent requires dose modification when creatinine clearance is < 30 ml/min.
    • Isoniazid
    • Rifampicin
    • Rifabutin
    • Pyrazinamide

  56. All the following statements are TRUE about neurosyphilis EXCEPT
    • CSF VDRL has high specificity but low sensitivity.
    • CSF VDRL sensitivity is highest in tabes dorsalis.
    • A non-reactive CSF FTA test may be used to rule out neurosyphilis.
    • Meningovascular syphilis presents as a gradually progressive vascular syndrome.

  57. All the following statements are true about Weil's syndrome except.
    • Mortality rates are 5 to 15%.
    • Associated with severe hepatic necrosis.
    • Splenomegaly is seen in 20% of cases.
    • Elevated creatinine kinase helps to differentiate it from viral hepatitis.

  58. Drug of choice for treating scrub typhus in pregnancy is
    • Ceftriaxone
    • Doxycycline
    • Azithromycin
    • Clarithromycin

  59. Which of the following is the commonest clinical finding in enteric fever?
    • Coated tongue
    • Rose spots
    • Abdominal tenderness
    • Hepatosplenomegaly

  60. Pastia's lines are characteristically seen in
    • Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome.
    • Scarlet fever.
    • IMN.
    • Kawasaki disease.

  61. Serum Galactomannan may help in the diagnosis of
    • Mucormycosis.
    • Invasive aspergillosis.
    • Cryptococcosis.
    • Candidemia

  62. Bullous myringitis in a patient with pneumonia is suggestive of infection due to
    • Coxiella Burnetti
    • Legionella Pneumophila
    • Haemophilus influenzae
    • Mycoplasma Pneumoniae

  63. All the following drugs can be used to treat MRSA bacteremia EXCEPT
    • Linezolid
    • Teicoplanin
    • Daptomycin
    • Vancomycin

  64. All the following are caused by Flavi viruses EXCEPT
    • Hepatitis C
    • West Nile
    • Ebola
    • Yellow fever

  65. All the following statements are TRUE about oseltamivir EXCEPT
    • Excreted primarily by the kidneys.
    • Neuropsychiatric side effects are more common in children.
    • Not effective against Influenza B.
    • Resistance develop by changes in viral Neuraminidase enzyme.

  66. Antimicrobial spectrum of Tigecycline includes all the following EXCEPT
    • Klebsiella pneumoniae
    • Acinetobacter baumanni
    • MRSA
    • Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

  67. Nitrofurantoin is indicated in the treatment of E.coli.
    • Cystitis
    • Pyelonephritis
    • Bacteremia
    • Osteomyelitis

  68. CENTOR scoring system [criteria] is used to diagnose
    • IMN
    • Diphtheria
    • Streptococcal Pharyngitis
    • Pertussis

  69. Asymptomatic bacteriuria should be treated in all the following situations EXCEPT
    • Catheterised patients.
    • Post renal transplant.
    • Prior to urological intervention.
    • Pregnancy

  70. Duncan's disease is associated with
    • EBV
    • HHV-6
    • HHV-8
    • CMV

  71. Parvovirus infection is associated with all the following EXCEPT
    • Milker's nodules
    • Hydrops fetalis
    • Chronic Anaemia
    • Polyarthropathy syndrome

  72. All the following statements are true about Human Papilloma Virus [HPV] infection EXCEPT
    • Quadrivalent HPV Vaccine is licensed for administration in girls and young women between 9 to 26 years of age.
    • HPV types 6 and 11 cause 90% of anogenital warts.
    • Cervical cancer screening is not required in quadrivalent HPV vaccinated ladies.
    • Epidermodysplasia verruciformis is associated with HPV infection.

  73. All the following statements are true about HIVAN[HIV associated nephropathy] EXCEPT
    • Proteinuria is the hallmark of HIVAN.
    • USG reveals bilaterally symmetrical contracted kidneys.
    • FSGS is present in 80%.
    • Edema and hypertension are rare.

  74. Vacuolar myelopathy in HIV is similar to
    • Conus cauda syndrome.
    • Subacute combined degeneration of the cord
    • Ataxic hemiparesis.
    • Freidrich's ataxia

  75. All the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
    • Herpangina is caused by coxsackievirus A.
    • Hand -foot-and-mouth disease is caused by coxsackievirus A-16 or enterovirus 71.
    • Erythematous halo differentiate koplik's spots from Fordyce's spots.
    • Hecht's pneumonia is usually seen in immunocompetent healthy adults.

  76. All the following statements are TRUE about mumps EXCEPT
    • Mumps meningitis can occur in the absence of parotitis.
    • Sterility after mumps orchitis is rare.
    • Hypoglycorrhachia is seen in mumps meningitis.
    • Glucocorticoids and tunica albuginea incision are recommended in severe mumps orchitis.

  77. Babes nodules are seen in
    • Cerebral malaria
    • Neurobrucellosis
    • Rabies
    • Lyme's disease

  78. Primary Amoebic meningoencephalitis is caused by
    • Balmuthia mandrillaris
    • Acanthamoeba cultbersoni
    • Naegleria fowled
    • Angiostrongylus cantonensis

  79. Human monoclonal antibody Bezlotoxumab is used in the treatment of
    • Babesiosis
    • HIV
    • Clostridium difficile colitis
    • Ebola

  80. Using the right drug at the right dose at the right time for the right duration for the right patient, inorder to minimize collateral damage due to alteration of gut microbiota is referred to as
    • Antibiotic heterogeneity
    • Antibiotic optimization
    • Antibiotic apocalypse
    • Antibiotic stewardship

  81. Name of the boat which caused the demise of Sri Kumaranasan
    • INS Vikrant
    • INS Garuda
    • Redeemer
    • INS Kalpa

  82. The famous text ‘Siddhanubhooti’ is written by
    • Chattampi Swamikal
    • Brahmananda Sivayogi
    • Swami Vivekananda
    • Ramakrishna Paramahansa

  83. The first moon exploration mission of India
    • Mangalyan
    • Agni-I
    • Chandrayan-I
    • Agni-II

  84. Muslim scholar, journalist, freedom fighter and the newspaper proprietor of Travancore
    • Vakkom Maulavi
    • Moulana Azad
    • Moulana Shoukath Ali
    • Muhammed Ali Jinnah

  85. ‘Mitavadi’ was published from Talassery in
    • 1905
    • 1906
    • 1907
    • 1910

  86. Real name of Thaycaud Ayya is
    • Subharaya
    • Sukumaran
    • Subbarao
    • Subharao

  87. World Yoga day is on
    • 21st March
    • 21st April
    • 21st May
    • 21st June

  88. Right to information Act is not applicable to
    • Punjab
    • Rajasthan
    • Jammu Kashmir
    • Goa

  89. Who is renowned as First Generation Feminist?
    • Sara Joseph
    • Sarojini Naidu
    • Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
    • Anna Chandi

  90. Mathrubhoomi became a daily from
    • 1930 April
    • 1931 April
    • 1913 April
    • 1929 April

  91. ‘Pratyaksha Raksha Daivasabha’ founded by
    • Sahodaran Ayyappan
    • Ayyankali
    • K. Kelappan
    • Poykayil Yohannan

  92. Auto Biography of G. Sankara Kuruppu
    • Olavum theeravum
    • Ormayude Olangalil
    • Oru desathinte Katha
    • Ente Katha

  93. ‘Shrimati’, a magazine founded and edited by
    • Akkamma Cheriyan
    • Anna Chandy
    • Kuttimalu Amma
    • Arya Pallam

  94. The education commission deputed for secondary education
    • Radhakrishna Commission
    • Kothari Commission
    • Hunter Commission
    • Muthaliar Commission

  95. The social reformer who is known as ‘Lincoln of Kerala’
    • Ayyankali
    • Pandit Karuppan
    • VT Bhattatrippad
    • Dr. Palpu

  96. ‘Atmavidyasangham’ founded by
    • Raja Ram Mohan Roy
    • Dayananda
    • Vagbhadananda
    • Vivekananda

  97. The Article of Constitution which provides the right to Central and State govt. to impose and collect GST.
    • Article 246A
    • Article 245A
    • Article 346A
    • Article 345A

  98. Expansion of AFSPA.
    • Armed Forces Special Powers Act
    • Armed Forces Special Privileges Act
    • Air Forces Special Protection Act
    • Armed Forces Super Powers Act

  99. Urjit Patel, our Reserve Bank Governor belongs to
    • Gujarat
    • Maharashtra
    • Madhya Pradesh
    • Uttaranchal

  100. 69th Amendment of Indian Constitution gives
    • Voting age reduced from 21 to 18
    • Power of National capital territory to Delhi
    • Special power to Jammu Kashmir
    • Right to education

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