Senior Lecturer in Dermatology and Venerology 196/2017 Answer Key

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Post: Senior Lecturer in Dermatology & Venerology
Department: Medical Education
Category Code: 196/17
Qualification: MD/DNB (Dermatology & Venerology)/ MD/DNB (Dermatology & Venerology &
Leprosy) + Permanent Registration under State Medical Council
Date of Test : 09-05-2018




  1. The major laminins found at the epidermal basement membrane zone include the following except
    • Laminin 332 (laminin 5)
    • Laminin 311 (laminin 6)
    • Laminin 511 (laminin 10)
    • Laminin 411 (laminin 8)

  2. Which of the following biological targets the IL12/23 pathway
    • Secukinumab
    • Ustekinumab
    • Certolizumab
    • Efalizumab

  3. Paraphenyienediamine in hair dye can cross-react with the following except
    • PABA
    • Benzocaine
    • Formaldehyde
    • Azo dyes

  4. The characteristic hemangioma seen in POEMS syndrome is
    • Hobnail hemangioma
    • Glomeruloid hemangioma
    • Spindle cell hemangioma
    • Tufted hemangioma

  5. SAPHO syndrome can have the following except
    • Palmoplantar pustulosis
    • Acne conglobata
    • Hidradenitis suppurativa
    • Pilonidal sinus

  6. Groove sign is a characteristic feature of
    • Eosinophilic fasciitis
    • Well's syndrome
    • Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
    • Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis

  7. The following cause photo contact dermatitis except
    • Benzophenones
    • Cinnamates
    • Celery
    • Mercaptobenzothiazole

  8. Which of the following is correctly matched?
    • Trichothiodystrophy-SPINK5
    • Incontinentiapigmenti-PTCH
    • Legius Syndrome-SPRED 1
    • Watson Syndrome-ABCA 7

  9. Grenz zone is seen in which of the following other than Hansen's Disease?
    • Erythema elevatum diutinum
    • Atrophic Lichen planus
    • Granuloma multiforme
    • Necrobiosis lipoidica

  10. The auto-inflammatory syndrome characterized by fever, erysipelas like skin rash and arthritis
    • Familial mediterranean fever
    • Cryopyrin associated periodic syndrome
    • Muckle well syndrome
    • Familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome

  11. Interface dermatitis can be seen in the following except
    • Syphilis
    • Dermatomyositis
    • Subacute cutaneous LE
    • Localised scleroderma

  12. Tadpole like tubular structures in the dermis are seen in
    • Syringoma
    • Cylindroma
    • Eccrinecystadenoma
    • Spiradenoma

  13. Ghost cells are characteristic histolopathologic finding in
    • Trichoepithelioma
    • Pilomatricoma
    • Trichofolliculoma
    • Trichilemmoma

  14. Neutrophilic eccrine hidradenitis is seen classically in following
    • Coxsackie virus infection
    • Anti-cancer drugs
    • Malignancy
    • Autoimmune diseases

  15. Which of the following drugs act by inhibiting inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase?
    • Cyclophosphamide
    • Azathioprine
    • 6 Mercaptopurine
    • Mycophenolate

  16. Follicular atrophoderma is classically seen in
    • Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma syndrome
    • Bazex Dupre Christol syndrome
    • Hidrotic ectodermal dysplasia
    • Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia

  17. Eosinophilic pustular folliculitis of Ofuji characteristically presents as
    • Painful pustules on the extremities
    • Circinate plaques with rim of pustules on face
    • Painful pustules on the scalp
    • Pruritic pustules on axilla and groins

  18. Trichodysplasia spinulosa is etiologically related to
    • Chronic friction
    • Polyoma virus
    • Cytotoxic drugs
    • Spina bifida occulta

  19. Which of the following most often causes endonyx type of onychomycosis?
    • Trichophyton mentagrophytes
    • Trichophyton rubrum
    • Trichophyton soudanense
    • Epidermophyton floccosum

  20. Acute haemorrhagic edema of infancy is linked with
    • Ig A vasculitis
    • Neonatal SLE
    • Septicemia
    • Neonatal jaundice

  21. Which of the following are the first line drugs for HIV in children below 3 years of age?
    • Tenofovir, Lamivudine, Efavirenz
    • Zidovudine, Lamivudine, Nevirapine
    • Abacavir, Lamivudine, Lopinavir
    • Tenofovir, Lamivudine, Nevirapine

  22. Lazarine leprosy is most often seen in
    • Borderline tuberculoid
    • Mid Borderline
    • Borderline lepromatous
    • Lepromatous Leprosy

  23. Dapsone was first used in India in the year
    • 1942
    • 1944
    • 1946
    • 1948

  24. Which of the following is a mainly CD30 positive?
    • Pagetoid Reticulosis
    • Granulomatous slack skin
    • Adult Tcell leukaemia/lymphoma
    • Lymphomatoidpapulosis

  25. Which among the following is an Interleukin 1 antagonists?
    • Zanolimumab
    • Tofacitinib
    • Canakinumab
    • Vemurafenib

  26. Delta wing jet sign is described in
    • Scabies
    • Cutaneous Larva migrans
    • Calabar swelling
    • Pediculosis pubis

  27. The following are features of sclerema neonatorum except
    • Seen mostly in preterm babies
    • Diffuse hardening of skin except palms, soles, genitalia
    • Preceding illness or sepsis usual
    • Hypercalcemia

  28. Erythema induratum is usually caused by
    • Sarcoidosis
    • Tuberculosis
    • Cutaneous lymphoma
    • Nonlangerhan cell histiocytosis

  29. FDA approved treatment for actinic keratosis
    • 5% Imiquimod
    • Topical Indomethacin gel
    • Ingenol Mebutate
    • All of these

  30. Onychocryptosis is
    • Splitting of distal edge of nail
    • Ingrowing toe nail
    • Brittle and thinned out nail
    • Longitudinal ridging

  31. Which of the following is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
    • Abacavir
    • Tenofovir
    • Emtricitabine
    • All of these

  32. Following belongs to clinical stage 3 of HIV illness except
    • Persistent oral candidiasis
    • Recurrent oral ulceration
    • Oral Hairy Leukoplakia
    • Severe Pneumonia

  33. Sirolimus an mTOR inhibitor is useful in the treatment of
    • Glomus tumour
    • Angiofibroma
    • Leiomyoma
    • All of these

  34. CROSS (Chemical Reconstruction of Skin Scars) most often done with
    • Glycolic acid
    • Lactic acid
    • Trichloracetic acid
    • All of these

  35. Which muscle is injected for reducing glabellar lines?
    • Frontalis
    • Temporalis
    • Procerus
    • None of these

  36. Which of the following is a medium depth peel?
    • 20% salicylic acid
    • 50% glycolic acid
    • 35% trichloracetic acid
    • 20% lactic acid

  37. Kindler's syndrome is characterized by the following except
    • Photosensitivity
    • Palmoplantarkeratoderma
    • Poikiloderma
    • Acral blistering

  38. Blistering Distal Dactylitis is caused by
    • Streptococcos pyogenes
    • Pseudomonas aeroginosa
    • Herpes simplex virus
    • Coxsackie A 16

  39. Focal Epithelial Hyperplasia is caused by
    • HPV 13
    • HPV 17
    • HPV 22
    • HPV 26

  40. Star burst pattern is classically described in
    • Reed Nevus
    • Blue Nevus
    • Congenital Melanocytic Nevus
    • Nevus Spilus

  41. The following chemicals is known to cause chemical leukoderma except
    • Paratertiarybuty phenol
    • Paraphenylenediamine
    • Squaric acid dibutyl ester
    • Phenylbenzimidazolesulphonic acid

  42. Which of the following drugs are effective in hereditary angioedema?
    • Ecallantide
    • Omalizumab
    • Dapsone
    • All of these

  43. Which of the following is an ectothrix fungi causing tinea capitis?
    • Microsporum audouinii
    • Trichophyton tonsurans
    • Trichophyton violaceum
    • All of these

  44. Which of the following ANA is specific for Mixed Connective Tissue Disease?
    • RNA polymerase
    • PM-SCL
    • U1 RNP
    • Scl-70

  45. Following are features of Lucio phenomenon
    • Often associated with high grade fever
    • No visceral damage
    • Responds well to Thalidomide
    • All of these

  46. The new IAL classification of leprosy includes
    • Maculoanesthetic
    • Polyneuritic
    • Borderline Tuberculoid
    • All of these

  47. Which of the ant-leprosy drug acts by blocking DNA gyrase?
    • Rifampicin
    • Minocycline
    • Ofloxacin
    • Clarithromycin

  48. Which of the appendagealtumours is commonly associated with Muir Torre syndrome?
    • Hair follicle
    • Apocrine
    • Eccrine
    • Sebaceous

  49. Macula cerulea are pigmented spots seen in association with
    • ActinicLichen planus
    • Erythema dyschromicumperstans
    • Urticaria pigmentosa
    • Pediculosis pubis

  50. Telangiectasia macularis eruptiva perstans is seen in
    • Parvovirus B19 infection
    • Cutaneous mastocytosis
    • Multiple myeloma
    • Systemic lupus erythematosus

  51. Xanthomadisseminatum is characterized by the following except.
    • Xanthomatous lesions on the flexures
    • Mucosal involvement not seen
    • Diabetes insipidus
    • Scalloped macrophages

  52. Marshall's syndrome is cutis laxa occurring in association with
    • Sweet's syndrome
    • Tertiary syphilis
    • Scleromyxoedema
    • HIV infection

  53. Cribriform type of scarring is characteristic of
    • Pyodermagangrenosum
    • Retiform large plaque parapsoriasis
    • B cell lymphoma leg type
    • Granulomatous slack skin

  54. Emperipolesis is a characteristic feature of
    • Angiolymphoid hyperplasia with eosinophilia
    • Rosai Dorfman Disease
    • Kimura's Disease
    • Kikuchi's Disease

  55. Progressive macular hypopigmentation is etiologically related to
    • Corynbacterium
    • Brevibacterium
    • Propionibacterium
    • Demodex

  56. Acrosyringeal keratinocyte necrosis is specific histology in erythema multiforme caused by
    • Herpes simplex virus
    • Phenytoin
    • Mycoplasma
    • Lupus erythematous

  57. Dimple sign is a feature of
    • Angioleiomyoma
    • Dermatofibroma
    • Atypical fibroxanthoma
    • Collagenoma

  58. Smooth muscle hamartoma is often associated with
    • Becker's Nevus
    • Organoid Nevus
    • Eccrine Duct Nevus
    • Dysplastic Nevus

  59. Dermoscopy showing maple leaf like structures in
    • Malignant melanoma
    • Extramammarypagets disease
    • Bowens disease
    • Basal cell carcinoma

  60. The following chemical sunscreens have UVA coverage except.
    • Ecamsule
    • Bemotrizinol (Tinosorb S)
    • Bisoctrizole (Tinosorb M)
    • Octocrylene

  61. Rapidly growing mycobacteria causing iatrogenic cutaneous infection.
    • M. chelonae
    • M. avium intracellulare
    • M. szulgai
    • M. scrofulaceum

  62. Mauserung phenomenon is caused by
    • Bullous Icthyosiformerythroderma
    • Non bullous Icthyosiformerythroderma
    • Harlequin Icthyosis
    • None of these

  63. Which of the following is true regarding Lupus miliaris disseminatus facei?
    • Annular plaques on the face
    • Tuberculoid granuloma with caseation
    • Can have visceral involvement
    • Responds to antiTB drugs

  64. Mucha Haberman disease is characterized by
    • Papulosquamous lesions
    • Ulcero-necrotic lesions
    • Infiltrated plaques
    • Acneiform eruptions

  65. Hair microscopy reveals regularly arranged small pigment granules in
    • Griscelli syndrome 1
    • Elejalde syndrome
    • Griscelli type 111
    • Chediak Higashi syndrome

  66. Frontal fibrosing alopecia is a type of cicartricial alopecia associated with
    • Lichen planus
    • Chronic cutaneous LE
    • Localised scleroderma
    • Lichen sclerosus et atrophicans

  67. Which of the following is the antigen involved in Epidermolysis Bullosa Aquisita?
    • Laminin 332
    • Type 1V collagen
    • Type V11 collagen
    • Type XV11 collagen

  68. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis is caused by oncogenic types of
    • HPV 7
    • HPV 5
    • HPV 3
    • All of these

  69. Castellani's paint contains the following except.
    • Acid fuschin
    • Boric acid
    • Resorcinol
    • Phenol

  70. Ecthyma contagiosum is characterized by the following except.
    • Targetoid lesions
    • Fingers are commonly involved
    • Erythromycin is effective
    • Heals within 3-6 weeks

  71. The laser of choice in keloids and hypertrophic scars
    • Q switched Nd YAG Laser
    • Long pulse Alexandrite Laser
    • Pulse Dye Laser
    • Fractional Carbon dioxide Laser

  72. Which is the steroid preferred in pregnancy?
    • Prednisolone
    • Traimcinolone
    • Dexamethasone
    • Betamethasone

  73. Brimonidine tartrate gel is found to be effective in the treatment of
    • Acne vulgaris
    • Demodecidosis
    • Rosacea
    • Perioral dermatitis

  74. Which of the following is the most abundant collagen in human dermis?
    • Type 1
    • Type 111
    • Type 1V
    • Type V

  75. The first gene mutation reported in a component of adherens junction was
    • P-cadherin
    • Plakoglobin
    • Desmoplakin
    • Plakophilin

  76. Langerhans cell is identified by IHC positivity to
    • CD 68
    • CD 1a
    • CD 31
    • None of these

  77. Which of the following antifungal is fungicidal?
    • Morpholines
    • Imidazoles
    • Griseofulvin
    • None of these

  78. The following are features of Infantile haemangiomas except.
    • Head and neck are the most common site
    • They are GLUT positive
    • Can be associated with high birth weight
    • Propranolol is given systemically

  79. For Inguinal Bubo, the STI kit by NACO is
    • Yellow
    • Green
    • Black
    • Grey

  80. Early onset psoriasis is often associated with
    • HLA B13
    • HLA B17
    • HLA B27
    • HLA Cw6

  81. Which of the following Amendment Act of the Constitution added Fundamental Duties to the Constitution?
    • 37th Amendment Act 1975
    • 38th Amendment Act 1975
    • 41st Amendment Act 1976
    • 42nd Amendment Act 1976

  82. How many schedules does the Right to Information Act 2005 have?
    • 5
    • 10
    • 2
    • 8

  83. Which of the following Articles contained Fundamental Rights?
    • 12 to 35
    • 15 to 39
    • 30 to 49
    • 19 to 29

  84. Who prepared the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
    • Vallabhai Patel
    • Jawaharlal Nehru
    • Rajendra Prasad
    • Kripalani

  85. Who among the following acted as the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?
    • V.P. Menon
    • Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    • B.N. Rao
    • Dr. Sachidanand Sinha

  86. In which day and year was the 1st railway line commissioned in Kerala?
    • 12th March 1861
    • 12th April 1861
    • 12th May 1861
    • 12th June 1861

  87. The two Malayalam Newspapers called 'Rajyasamacharam' and 'Paschimodayam' were started by whom?
    • Arnose Pathiri
    • Benjamin Bailey
    • Herman Gundert
    • Col. Munro

  88. Who was the leader of the Kurichya Revolt of 1812?
    • Thalackal Chandu
    • Rama Namby
    • Edachena Kunkan Nair
    • Kaitheri Ambu Nair

  89. The first social reformer to make mirror consecration (Kannadi Prathista) in South India.
    • Chattampi Swamikal
    • Ayyankali
    • Vaghbhatananda
    • Vaikunda Swamikal

  90. The author of the work 'Atmopadesa Satakam'.
    • V.T. Bhattathiripad
    • Chattampi Swamikal
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Vaikunda Swamikal

  91. Who published the Arabic-Malayalam monthly Al-Islam?
    • Seethi Koya Thangal
    • Vakkom Abdul Khader Maulavi
    • Ali Musaliar
    • Kunjahamed Haji

  92. The leader of the Pattini Jatha from Kannur to Madras in 1936
    • K. Kelappan
    • C. Kesavan
    • V.R. Krishnan Ezhuthachen
    • A. K. Gopalan

  93. In which year was the Nivarthana Movement started?
    • 1927
    • 1929
    • 1932
    • 1938

  94. Who authored the work 'Onnekal Kodi Malayalikal'?
    • K. Kelappan
    • T.M. Varghese
    • E.M.S. Namboothirippad
    • N.V. Joseph

  95. Name the first President of the Travancore State Congress
    • Pattam A. Thanu Pillai
    • P.K. Kunju
    • T.M. Varghese
    • C. Kesavan

  96. The women Tennis player who has the record of 23 Grand Slams
    • Venus William
    • Serena Williams
    • Simona Halep
    • Sloyen Stephens

  97. In which State of India, the Kakrapara project is located?
    • Rajasthan
    • Punjab
    • Gujarat
    • Haryana

  98. With which game is Thomas Cup associated?
    • Football
    • Badminton
    • Cricket
    • Tennis

  99. Which day is observed as World Population Day?
    • June 11
    • April 11
    • July 11
    • May 11

  100. Who received the Golden Ball award for the best player of the FIFA World Cup 2014?
    • Miroslav Klose
    • Karim Benzema
    • Angel D' Maria
    • Lionel Messi

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