Sr Lecturer in Radiodiagnosis Medical Education 199/2017 Answer Key

x-ray machine setup hospital white wire

Post : Senior Lecturer in Radiodiagnosis
Department : Medical Education
Category Code : 199/17
Qualification : MD (Radiodiagnosis)/ DNB (Radiodiagnosis)/MBBS Degree + Permanent Registration under State Medical Council
Date of Test : 03-05-2018




  1. Compared with SE, GRE sequences use
    • Longer TR and longer TE
    • Shorter TR and long TE
    • Longer TR and shorter TE
    • Shorter TR and shorter TE

  2. Echo planar imaging forms echoes using
    • Successive 90-degree pulses
    • Successive alternating 90-degree pulses
    • Successive180 degree pulses
    • Successive alternating gradients

  3. Lingula of lung is best seen in which X-ray view?
    • Lordotic
    • Apical
    • Left lateral decubitus
    • Right lateral decubitus

  4. Most signal in K space is present
    • In the center
    • In the periphery
    • Along the frequency encoding axis
    • Along gradient encoding axis

  5. In order to decrease dose in large patients
    • Decrease kV and improve image noise
    • Increase kV and improve image noise
    • Increase in KV and improve in contrast
    • Decrease in KV and improve in contrast

  6. Penumonia alba is seen in
    • Congenital TB
    • Congenital malaria
    • Neonatal HIV
    • Congenital syphilis

  7. The diagnosis of necrotizing entero colitis is best made by
    • Plain radiograph of abdomen
    • Barium enema
    • USG
    • None of these

  8. Which of the following is false?
    • Calcification is present in 10% with Wilms tumor
    • Calcification is present in 50% of neuroblastoma
    • Stage IV-S neuroblastoma has a very bad prognosis
    • Bilateral Wilms tumor is stage V tumor

  9. The earliest radiologic sign of mitral stenosis is
    • Straightening of left border of cardiac silhouette
    • Upper lobe pulmonary veins are congested and prominent
    • "Inverted moustache sign"
    • kerley B lines

  10. Pneumothorax is common with pneumonia caused by
    • Streptococcus
    • Pneumocystis carinii
    • Staphylococcus aureus
    • H. influenzae

  11. In x-ray imaging, noise is determined by
    • Energy of x-rays hitting the detector
    • Number of x-rays hitting the detector
    • Tissue contrast
    • Amount of scatter hitting the detector

  12. Which of the following numbers reported by the scanner best reflects the total amount of radiation delivered to the patient
    • Dose
    • CT Dose Index (CTDI)
    • Pitch
    • Dose-length product (DLP)

  13. The following term refers to a measure designed to reflect stochastic (cancer) risk from radiation
    • Dose
    • CT Dose Index (CTDI)
    • Average dose
    • Effective dose

  14. Automated exposure compensation uses the topogram (or scout) image to determine
    • Tube current (mA)
    • Pitch
    • Reconstruction filter
    • Bowtie filter

  15. Iodine is a good CT contrast agent because
    • We can achieve very high concentrations in target organs
    • The k-edge (33 keV) is much lower than x-ray energies produced by a 120 kV tube
    • The k-edge (33 keV) is near the average diagnostic x-ray energy produced by a 120 kV tube
    • It simulates the attenuation of bone

  16. First X ray sign in pulmonary thromboembolism
    • Wester mark sign
    • Palla sign
    • Fleischner sign
    • Knuckle sign

  17. Atoll sign is seen
    • Tuberculosis
    • Cryptogenic organising pneumonia
    • Aspergillosis
    • Pneumocystis carini pneuomonia

  18. All the statements regarding shoulder radiography is true except
    • In AP view with neutral rotation both greater and lesser tuberosities are super imposed
    • In Grasheys projection there is more overlap of gleniod than AP projection
    • AP oblique view rotate the body 35-45 degree
    • In Y view humeral head should super impose over the base of Y if not dislocated

  19. All are features of cardiomegaly except
    • CTR > 50% in PA chest
    • CTR > 60% in AP chest
    • Cardiac diameter > 15.5 cm
    • 1.5 times increase in diameter in serial X rays

  20. Most anterior ethmiod air cell is
    • Haller cell
    • Onodi cell
    • Agger nasi cell
    • Concha bullosa

  21. Dentigerous cyst false statement is
    • Seen in adolescent age
    • Unilocularcyst
    • Replaces tooth
    • Seen in old age

  22. In Film processing – fixing, all are true except
    • Made of hypo/ammonium thiosulphate
    • Preservative for developer and fixer is same
    • Hardening agent harden and shrinks gelatin in the film emulsion to prevent its reduction
    • Acidifier neutralizes alkaline developer

  23. TLD false statement is
    • Active radiation detection device
    • Disc are made of calcium SO4
    • Lower filter is kept open
    • Measures doses between 0.01-10.4 mGy

  24. Regarding dark room false statement
    • White/light colour paint on walls
    • Lead equivalent of 2 mm in walls
    • Ideal flooring with ceramic tile
    • For safe light, bulb of 50 W is used

  25. Fluid colour sign in USG seen in
    • Pleural plaque
    • Pleural effusion
    • Hemangioma
    • Lymphovenous malformation

  26. In lateral view chest X ray
    • Left hemidiaphragm lower than right
    • Right hemidiaphragm lower than left
    • Right dome is fully traceable
    • Dome closer to film is lower

  27. Lung volume is maintained in
    • UIP
    • NSIP
    • NF1
    • DIP

  28. Patchy ground glass opacities with peripheral perivascular cyst seen in
    • DIP
    • RB ILD
    • LIP
    • NSIP

  29. All are features of air space opacity except
    • Air bronchogram
    • Silhouette sign
    • Preserved volume
    • Reticular shadow

  30. Regarding cystic adenamatiod malformation false statement is
    • Spontaneous resolution can occur
    • Type 3 is solid mass
    • Type 2 shows uniform cyst of size < 2 cm
    • Type 1 shows micro cyst

  31. True in pneumothorax
    • Sea shore sign
    • Bar code sign
    • Lung slide
    • Prominent B pattern

  32. KVP for high KV chest X RAY
    • 60
    • 90
    • 120
    • 150

  33. Maximum permissible radiation in a pregnancy
    • 0.1 msv
    • 1 msv
    • 10 msv
    • 100 msv

  34. Para pharyngeal space false statement
    • Superior margin is skull base
    • Inferior margin is C7 vertebra
    • Contains fat and internal maxillary artery
    • Located anterior to pre vertebral space

  35. Left hilum is
    • Higher level than right
    • Lower level than right
    • Denser than right
    • Lucent than right

  36. Carciniod tumour of lung false statement
    • Well defined hilar mass
    • Eccenric calcification common
    • Atypical carciniods are hypovascular
    • Typical carciniods are hyper vascular

  37. Small bowel true statement is
    • Presence of haustra
    • Presence of Valvulae
    • Presence of fecus
    • Peripheral location

  38. Carcinoma rectum true is statement
    • T 2 Tumour extend beyond rectal wall
    • Mesorectal fascia positive tumour are candidates for total mesoretal excision
    • TRUS is the choice between T3 and T4 tumours
    • Mesorectal fascia (MRF) involvement means tumour within 1 mm of MRF

  39. Beaded appearance seen in MRCP in all except
    • HIV cholangiopathy
    • Metastasis
    • Hilarcholangiocarcinoma
    • Primary sclerosing cholangitis

  40. Treatment option for HCC with right branch of portal vein involvement
    • Surgery
    • RFA
    • TARE
    • TACE

  41. BMFT contraindicated in
    • Large bowel obstruction
    • Small bowel obstruction
    • Ulcerative colitis
    • Crohns disease

  42. Features of malignant gastric ulcer
    • Hamptons line
    • Extending outside the lumen
    • Smooth margin
    • Thick mucosal fold

  43. All are true regarding paediatric liver lesions except
    • Hepatoblastoma may be associated with familial adenomatoum polyposis
    • Hemangio endothelioma may show narrow infra renal aorta
    • Mesenchymal hemartoma may present antenatally as hydrops fetalis
    • Von meyenburg complex shows multiple moderate size liver cyst

  44. Regarding chronic calcific pancreatitis true statement is
    • Pancreatic duct shows smooth dilatation
    • Chunky calcification in groove pancreatitis
    • Central luceny of calculus in hereditary pancreatitis
    • Duct penetrance sign is an indicator of inflammatory mass

  45. Primary CNS vasculitis all are true statement except
    • Common in female
    • Calabresa's criteria for clinical diagnosis
    • DSA shows focal/diffuse narrowing of small vessels
    • Meningeal enhancement may be seen

  46. True about dementia
    • Temporal lobe involvement seen in pre senile Alziemers disease
    • Temporal lobe involvement in CADASIL
    • Inferior frontal lobe involvement seen in strategic infarcts
    • Symmetric parietal atrophy in coticobasilar degeneration

  47. True statement in CNS abscess
    • Diffusion restriction of wall in bacterial abscess
    • Succinate peak in tuberculous abscess
    • Diffusion restriction of center in fungal
    • Diffusion restriction of wall in fungal

  48. Cather used for cerebral angiogram in case of bovine arch
    • Head hunter
    • Manis
    • Vertebral
    • JUDKINS

  49. Diffusion restriction is seen in
    • Arachniod cyst
    • Neuroglial cyst
    • Ependymal cyst
    • Epidermiod cyst

  50. Spinal cord ependymoma false statement
    • More central
    • Hemorrhage is common
    • Eccentric location
    • More enhancing

  51. Hyperostosis frontalis interna false statement is
    • Bilateral symmetric
    • Can involve parietal lobe
    • Inner table thickening
    • Inner and outer table thickening

  52. Normal basal angle
    • 125-145
    • 100-125
    • 90-115
    • 150-175

  53. Inner ear abnormality that can result in insult at 4th week of gestation
    • Michel deformity
    • Mondini deformity
    • Cochlear aplasia
    • Common cavity malformation

  54. 11-14 weeks scan
    • is done when CRL > 50 mm
    • is done when CRL > 45 mm
    • NT > 2 is abnormal
    • Done during fetal flexion

  55. Indications for fetal echocardiography are except
    • Pre gestational diabetes
    • Diabetes diagnosed in first trimester
    • Paternal cardiac disease
    • Diabetes with HBA1C < 6%

  56. In adenomyosis all are true except
    • Subendometrial cyst
    • Subendometrial echogenic nodule
    • Thickened transitional zone
    • Diverticula extending to endometrium is HSG

  57. Septate uterus false statement is
    • Fundal contour may be normal
    • MRI is the modality of choice
    • Angle between cavity is < 75%
    • Angle between cavity is 75-125%

  58. Following refers to structural reporting system except
    • BIRAD-Breast
    • TIRADS-Thyroid
    • LIRADS-Lung
    • PIRADS-Prostate

  59. All are true in prostate except
    • Citrate is increased in MRS in malignant tissue
    • Peripheral zone is hyper intense in T2 MRI
    • Peripheral zone is hyperechioc in TRUS
    • Obliteration of recto prostatic angle is a sign of extra capsular extension

  60. Erectile dysfunction false statement is
    • Angiography is gold standards for arterial impotence
    • Penile Doppler is done with intra cavernosal papaverine injection
    • PSV < 30 cm/s indicates arterial insufficiency
    • EDV<5 cm/s indicates venous insufficiency

  61. Pro peritoneal fat plane is
    • Displaced in retroperitoneal lesion
    • Obliterated in retroperitoneal lesion
    • Unaffected in retroperitoneal lesion
    • Better visualised in retroperitoneal lesion

  62. All are features of acute urinary obstruction except
    • Delayed dense nephrogram
    • Pyelotubular back flow
    • Moderate hydronephrosis
    • Modest renal enlargement

  63. DWI can be negative in all except
    • Brain stem infarct
    • Corona radiate infarct
    • Deep grey matter nuclei infarct
    • When cerebral flow is in range of only electrical activity

  64. First ventricle is
    • Right lateral ventricle
    • Left lateral ventricle
    • Foramen munro
    • Foramen lushka

  65. Cobble stone appearance in MRI brain seen in all except
    • Walker Warburg syndrome
    • Fukayama dystrophy
    • Muscle eye brain disease
    • Rett syndrome

  66. Relative percentage signal recovery (r PSR) is minimum for
    • Gliosarcoma
    • Epitheliodglioblastoma
    • Lymphoma
    • Oligodendroglioma IDH mutant

  67. One excluded in WHO 2016 brain tumor classification
    • Glioblastoma
    • Gliosarcoma
    • Gemistocytic astrocytoma
    • Protoplamic astrocytoma

  68. Inferior wall of third ventricle formed by all except
    • Mammillary body
    • Optic chiasm
    • Tuber cinerum
    • Habenular commissure

  69. T1 hyper intensity seen in all except
    • Hyper acute blood
    • Sub acute blood
    • Melanin
    • Fat

  70. Temporal lobe cyst seen all except
    • Aicardi syndrome
    • Vander Knapp disease
    • Congenital rubella
    • Batten's disease

  71. Tumoral calcinosis all are true except
    • Associated with hypercalcemia
    • More in blacks
    • Central lucency may be seen
    • Extensor aspect of joint

  72. False statement about myositis ossificans
    • Peripheral calcification
    • Decrease in size with disease progression
    • Edema in subacute phase
    • Peripheral fat in MRI

  73. All are seen in pyknodysostosis except
    • Medullary sparing
    • Mandibular changes
    • Acro-osteolysis
    • Hepatsplenomegaly

  74. Features of Morqio disease except
    • Platyspondyly
    • Inferior vertebral body beaking
    • Epiphyseal changes
    • Oar shaped ribs

  75. Caffeys syndrome is associated with
    • Corner fracture
    • Green stick fracture
    • Loozers zone
    • Epiphyseal fracture

  76. Hamman's sign is seen in
    • Hamman Rich syndrome
    • Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency
    • Miliary TB
    • Pneumomediastinum

  77. Wormian bones are seen in all of the following except
    • Some normal children
    • Osteogenesis imperfecta
    • Cleido cranial dysostosis
    • Congenital rubella syndrome

  78. Posterior iliac horns are seen in
    • Pena Shokeir syndrome
    • Crouzon syndrome
    • Nail patella syndrome
    • Pierre Robin syndrome

  79. 'Banana sign' in the fetal brain suggests
    • Spina bifida
    • Renal agenesis
    • Encephalocoele
    • Porencephaly

  80. A metacarpal index of 8.4 is suggestive of
    • Turner syndrome
    • Noonan syndrome
    • Klinefelter syndrome
    • Marfan syndrome

  81. According to which Article, the executive power of the Union is vested in the President of India.
    • Article 64
    • Article 63
    • Article 52
    • Article 53

  82. 'To defend the country and render national service when called up on to do so' is a fundamental duty. Which is the Article?
    • Article 51 A(d)
    • Article 51 A(b)
    • Article 51 A(c)
    • Article 51 A(e)

  83. In which schedule of the Constitution deals with Union List, State List and Concurrent List?
    • Tenth Schedule
    • Seventh Schedule
    • Sixth Schedule
    • Ninth Schedule

  84. Which Article is related to Grama Sabha?
    • Article 243 C
    • Article 243 B
    • Article 243 A
    • Article 243 D

  85. Article 29 and 30 deals with
    • Right to Life and Liberty
    • Religious Freedom
    • Cultural and Educational Rights
    • Right against Exploitation

  86. 'Duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance'. Which Article is related with this provision?
    • Article 354
    • Article 355
    • Article 356
    • Article 357

  87. 'Mission Indradhanush' launched by the Govt. of India pertains to
    • New Education Policy
    • Construction of Smart Cities across the country
    • India's own search for the Earth like Planets in outer Planets
    • Immunization of children and pregnant women

  88. Help Line 'Udyami' is meant for
    • Micro, small and medium enterprises
    • Large capital Industries
    • Female entrepreneurs
    • Farmers using Technology in Farming

  89. Maximum age for joining Atal Pension Yojana is
    • 60 years
    • 50 years
    • 40 years
    • 70 years

  90. Which State Govt. has launched Mahatma Gandhi Sarbat Vikas Yojana (MGSVY) for distressed Sections?
    • Punjab
    • Karnataka
    • Meghalaya
    • Kerala

  91. Sahodara Sangam was founded at
    • Kodugallur
    • Kottayam
    • Thrissur
    • Cherai

  92. The Organisation called 'Samyuktha Rashtriya Samiti' was formed in connection with
    • Aikya Kerala Movement
    • Abstention Movement
    • Guruvayur Satyagraha
    • Vaikom Satyagraha

  93. Who wrote the famous work 'Jathikummi'?
    • Kelappan
    • EMS
    • Pandit Karuppan
    • O.N.V. Kurup

  94. Arrange the following events in chronological order.
    1. Temple Entry Proclamation
    2. Vaikom Satyagraha
    3. Shanar Agitation
    4. Paliyam Satyagraha
    • (3, 2, 1, 4)
    • (4, 2, 3, 1)
    • (2, 4, 1, 3)
    • (1, 3, 4, 2)

  95. Indicate the wrong pair among them.
    • E. M. Sankaran Namboothiripad - Onnekal kodi Malayalikal
    • V.T. Bhattathirippad - Kanneerum Kinavm
    • Vaghbhatananda - Abhinava Keralam
    • Vaikunda Swamikal - Darsanamala

  96. Who among the following become the recipients of Padma Vibhushan in the year 2018?
    • Philipose Mar Chrysostom
    • Ghulam Mustafa Khan
    • Aravind Parikh
    • Mahendra Singh Dhoni

  97. Shakespeare Beach is located in which country?
    • France
    • Canada
    • Italy
    • England

  98. The 2018 National Girl Child Day (NGCD) is celebrated on which date in India?
    • January 24
    • January 25
    • January 23
    • January 26

  99. Gadgil Committee Report and Kasturirangan Committee Report are related to
    • Constitutional Reforms
    • Protection of Western Ghats
    • Ganga Action Plan
    • Linking of Rivers

  100. In which year, United Nations General Assembly voted to establish 2nd October as the International Day of Non-Violence?
    • 2005
    • 2003
    • 2007
    • 2009

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