Assistant Surgeon/ Casualty Medical Officer Answer Key 71/2018

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Post: Assistant Surgeon/ Casualty Medical Officer, Assistant Insurance Medical Officer
Department: Health Services, Insurance Medical Services
Category Code: 486/2016, 356/2017, 357/2017, 358/2018,423/2017,535/2017
Qualification: MBBS
Question Paper Code: 71/18
Date of Test: 30-06-2018


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  1. Hassall’s corpuscles are present in:
    • Spleen
    • Thymus
    • Tonsil
    • Lymph node

  2. Which of the following is not supplied by oculomotor nerve?
    • Levator palpebrae superioris
    • Superior rectus
    • Inferior oblique
    • Lateral rectus

  3. Internal spermatic fascia is derived from:
    • External oblique aponeurosis
    • Internal oblique muscle
    • Transversus abdominis muscle
    • Transversalis fascia

  4. Which of the following arteries does not supply internal capsule?
    • Anterior    cerebral
    • Middle cerebral
    • Anterior    choroidal
    • Posterior choroidal

  5. Net energy yield from complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose when malate-aspartate shuttle is operating:
    • 28
    • 30
    • 32
    • 34

  6. All the following enzyme catalyzed reactions are examples of biotin independent carboxylations except:
    • Malic enzyme
    • Propionyl CoA carboxylase
    • Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I
    • Carbamoyl phosphate synthase II

  7. Rate limiting enzyme in fatty acid synthesis:
    • Pyruvate carboxylase
    • Acetyl CoA carboxylase
    • Carnitine acyltransferase I
    • Fatty acid synthase complex

  8. All the following are components of Garrod’s tetrad except:
    • Albinism
    • Alkaptonuria
    • Phenylketonuria
    • Essential pentosuria

  9. In Hemophilia which of the factor is deficient?
    • Factor V111
    • Factor V11
    • Factor V1
    • Factor X

  10. P wave in ECG is produced by:
    • Ventricular    depolarization
    • Atrial    depolarization
    • Ventricular    repolarization
    • Atrial    repolarization

  11. ADH facilitates water reabsorption in which part of renal tubule?
    • Proximal convoluted tubule
    • Ascending limb of loop of Henle
    • Descending limb of loop of Henle
    • Collecting duct

  12. Pancreatic secretion contains:
    • Enteropeptidase
    • Pepsin
    • Trypsin
    • Motilin

  13. ‘La Bandera’ is the method of torture by suspending a person:
    • by head down
    • by wrists
    • by arms
    • by ankles

  14. The special samples to be taken for chemical analysis during an exhumation process is:
    • clothes
    • earth
    • viscera
    • soft tissues

  15. As per the ‘Wallace Rule’ the head and neck covers about:
    • 7% of body surface
    • 8% of body surface
    • 9% of body surface
    • 10% of body surface

  16. Optic nerve toxicity is classically seen in poisoning with:
    • barbiturates
    • cocaine
    • methyl alcohol
    • zinc phosphide

  17. Which of the following viruses have a dsRNA as their nucleic acid?
    • Rhabdoviruses
    • Paramyxoviruses
    • Retroviruses
    • Reoviruses

  18. All of the following are acute phase reactants except:
    • Serum amyloid A
    • TNF-α
    • CRP
    • Haptoglobin

  19. Which of the following is the gold standard for HIV diagnosis?
    • Western blot
    • ELISA
    • p24 antigen detection
    • Viral RNA detection

  20. Which of the following are used for the disinfection of contact lens?
    • Hydrogen peroxide
    • Ethanol
    • Isopropyl alcohol
    • Chlorhexidine

  21. Which is NOT a feature of Atypical Meningioma?
    • 4/ more mitosis per HPF
    • Hypercellularity
    • Sheet like growth of cells and necrosis
    • Macronucleoli

  22. The IHC marker useful in diagnosis of Endometrial Stromal Sarcoma.
    • CD 10
    • CD 20
    • EMA
    • SMA

  23. Rheumatoid arthritis is characterised by all of the following except:
    • Synovial hyperplasia with prominent lymphoplasmacytic infiltration
    • Pannus formation
    • Fibrin deposition
    • Intraarticular loose body (rice body) formation

  24. Which of the following is a feature of Pilocytic Astrocytoma?
    • Monotonous population of small uniform tumor cells
    • Endothelial proliferation
    • Rosette formation
    • Rosenthal fibres and eosinophilic granular bodies

  25. Antidepressant among the following is:
    • Levomilnacipran
    • Lacosamide
    • Lorcaserin
    • Lomitapide

  26. Heparin induced thrombocytopenia is treated with:
    • Abciximab
    • Atosiban
    • Argatroban
    • Aprepitant

  27. Ezetimibe is used to treat:
    • Epilepsy
    • Diabetes mellitus
    • Diabetes insipidus
    • Hyperlipidemia

  28. All are true about Quinupristin-Dalfopristin except:
    • it is administered intravenously
    • they are combined in 70/30 ratio
    • dose adjustment not needed in renal failure
    • can cause myalgia-arthralgia syndrome

  29. The Ottawa Charter is concerned with:
    • Health Promotion
    • Specific Protection
    • Early Diagnosis and Treatment
    • Rehabilitation

  30. Which of the criteria for judging causality is shown by Relative Risk?
    • Temporal association
    • Coherence of Association
    • Strength of Association
    • Specificity of Association

  31. Which is the drug recommended for treatment of Plasmodium Falciparum Malaria in the first trimester of Pregnancy?
    • ACT
    • Primaquine
    • Lumefantrine
    • Quinine

  32. All of the following are more in breast milk during the first month of lactation than cow’s milk except:
    • Casein
    • Linoleic acid
    • Lactose
    • Vitamin C

  33. Colour vision is tested using all the following methods except:
    • Pelli Robson charts
    • Hardy Rand Rittler charts
    • Anomaloscope
    • FM 100 test

  34. Magician’s forceps phenomenon is seen in:
    • Accommodative esotropia
    • Intermittent exotropia
    • Duane’s retraction syndrome
    • Double elevator palsy

  35. Teardrop sign in CT Scan Orbit is suggestive of:
    • Blow in fracture
    • Le Fort fracture
    • Fracture roof of orbit
    • Blow out fracture

  36. ‘Scrambled egg’ appearance in the fundus is typical of:
    • Age related macular degeneration
    • Cone dystrophy
    • Best’s disease
    • Diabetic maculopathy

  37. Thornwaldt’s cyst arises from persistence of:
    • Rathke’s pouch
    • Pharyngeal pouch
    • Anterior pouch of von Troeltsch
    • Luschka’s pouch
    Question Error

  38. The non-syndromic hearing loss of DFNB1 is a type of:
    • Autosomal dominant hearing loss
    • Autosomal recessive hearing loss
    • Mitochondrial disorder with hearing loss
    • X linked hereditary hearing loss

  39. The Schaefer classification is used in:
    • Laryngeal trauma
    • Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma
    • Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
    • Subglottic stenosis

  40. Large Vestibular aqueduct is most commonly associated with:
    • Alport’s syndrome
    • Jervell and Lange Nielson Syndrome
    • Pendred syndrome
    • Usher syndrome

  41. OVLT is an organ concerned with the regulation of:
    • Respiration
    • Blood Pressure
    • Temperature
    • Hunger

  42. Definition of AIDS is CD4 cell count less than:
    • 800
    • 600
    • 400
    • 200

  43. Multifocal atrial tachycardia is commonly associated with:
    • Ischemic heart Disease
    • Respiratory Disease
    • Hypokalemia
    • Hyperkalemia

  44. The disease which produce macrocytic anaemia is:
    • Multiple Myeloma
    • Acromegaly
    • Hypothyroidism
    • Rheumatoid Arthritis

  45. Nihilistic delusion is associated with:
    • Cotard’s syndrome
    • Ekbom syndrome
    • Capgras syndrome
    • De Clerambault syndrome

  46. A 16 year old boy, on seeing sharp objects gets repeated urge to pick it up and stab others. He does not wish to carry it out and does not act on it. He has significant distress and tries to resist the urge. Most likely diagnosis is:
    • Conduct disorder
    • Hypomania
    • Obsessive compulsive disorder
    • Impulse control disorder

  47. The drug of abuse ‘ECSTASY’ is:
    • Phencyclidine
    • Cocaine
    • MDMA
    • LSD

  48. The neuropeptide transmitter implicated in narcolepsy is:
    • Histamine
    • Melatonin
    • Acetyl Choline
    • Hypocretin

  49. Lambda sign in obstetric ultrasound is indicative of:
    • Hydrops foetalis
    • Dichorionic diamniotic twins
    • Monochorionic diamniotic twins
    • Monochorionic monoamniotic twins

  50. Mc Roberts manoeuvre is considered as the first line treatment for:
    • Breech delivery
    • Transverse lie
    • Shoulder dystocia
    • Abruptio placenta

  51. The most common gynaecological cancer in India is:
    • Endometrial cancer
    • Ovarian cancer
    • Cervical cancer
    • Vulval cancer

  52. The hormone content in long acting reversible contraceptive device is:
    • Levonorgestrel
    • Oestrogen
    • Testosterone
    • Misoprostol

  53. The following statements in vitiligo are true except:
    • An acquired pigment anomaly of skin
    • Due to defect in Tyrosinase activity
    • Progressive loss of melanocytes in skin
    • Segmental distribution of skin lesions can occur.

  54. Characteristic primary lesion in Acne vulgaris is:
    • Pustules
    • Papules
    • Nodules
    • Comedones

  55. Nail changes which can occur in Lichen planus are the following except:
    • Longitudinal grooves
    • Longitudinal melanonychia
    • Pterygium inversum unguis
    • Trachyonychia

  56. Necrolytic acral erythema is a specific feature of infection with:
    • Epstein - Barr virus
    • Hepatitis C virus
    • Herpes simplex virus
    • Human immunodeficiency virus

  57. The Amsterdam criteria II is used for assessing:
    • Gastrointestinal stromal tumour
    • Pendred’s Syndrome
    • Choledochal Cyst
    • Lynch Syndrome

  58. The Boaris operation is indicated in:
    • Carcinoma of Kidney
    • Cholangiocarcinoma
    • Injury to ureter
    • Injury to common bile duct

  59. In the management of deep vein thrombosis with oral anticoagulants, the INR must be maintained between:
    • 1.5 to 2.5
    • 2.5 to 3.5
    • 3.5 to 4.5
    • > 4.5

  60. The Vitamin deficiency is normally seen after Gastrectomy:
    • Vit. B12
    • Vit. B6
    • Vit. B1
    • Vit. D

  61. The least constraint knee joint prosthesis among the following is:
    • CR type of knee
    • PS type of knee
    • TC3 knee
    • Hinged knee

  62. “Liftoff test” is used to test the functional status of which muscle?
    • Supraspinatus
    • Infraspinatus
    • Teres major
    • Subscapularis

  63. All are features of synovial sarcoma except:
    • Usually seen in the age group of less than 50 years.
    • More common at extra articular site.
    • Originate from synovial lining.
    • Knee and foot are commonly involved.

  64. A joint is innervated by the articular branch of the nerve, which supply the muscle which moves the joint. This law is known as:
    • Wolff’s law
    • Blount’s law
    • Hilton’s law
    • Cushing’s law

  65. Choose the best sequence of Rehabilitation measures for a Spastic Diplegic child with crouch gait.
    • Antispastic Drugs, Dorsiflexor strengthening, Articulated AFOs
    • Antispastic Drugs, Quadriceps strengthening, Calcaneal osteotomy and static AFO
    • Antispastic Drugs, Tendo Achilles lengthening, Articulated AFO
    • Botulinum toxin injection to Gastronemius, static AFO and Dorsiflexor strengthening

  66. One of the following is not a poor prognostic factor for Brachial plexus injury:
    • Positive SNAP in NCV with absent sensation
    • Serratus Anterior Paralysis
    • Horner’s Syndrome
    • Partial involvement of Myotomes

  67. One of the following Rehab professional is not part of the Rehabilitation Team for an Amputee:
    • Physiatrist
    • Prosthetist
    • Speech therapist
    • Occupational therapist

  68. One of the following is an important Component of Person’s with Disabilities Act.
    • All Public Buildings must be made Disabled Friendly
    • Person’s with 20% Disability are considered for income tax exemption
    • 3% of all education seats are reserved for Learning Disability only
    • 30% of employees in Govt. Institutions are reserved for Locomotor Disability.

  69. Polyoma virus is associated with the aetiology of the following cancer:
    • Hepatocellular Carcinoma
    • Merckel cell carcinoma
    • Castlemans Disease
    • Anogenital cancer

  70. The following is not true about “BLEOMYCIN”:
    • Bleomycin is cell cycle specific and its main effects mediates in S phase.
    • Dose limiting toxicity of Bleomycin is pulmonary toxicity.
    • 60%-70% of Bleomycin is execrated unchanged in urine
    • Bleomycin is absorbed rapidly after in injections.

  71. Following not included in MEN 2B:
    • Pheochromocytoma
    • Hyperparathyroidism
    • Mega colon
    • Skeletal abnormality

  72. The following statements regards Carcinoma Oropharynx is true:
    • The epithelial covering on nasopharyngeal side is respiratory epithelium
    • 20-25% of tonsilar tumours are lymphomas
    • Surgery is the treatment of choice in BOT lesions
    • Medical pterigoid involvement is T3b.

  73. Inhalation anaesthetic agent which causes greatest magnitude of Carbon Monoxide production:
    • Desflurane
    • Sevoflurane
    • Isoflurane
    • Halothane

  74. Concerning Dexmedetomidine choose the incorrect statement:
    • Dexmedetomidine is the S - enantiomer of medetomidine
    • Delirium in ICU is significantly lower when used for sedation
    • Induces sedation through GABA system
    • Pharmacokinetics is not influenced by renal impairment

  75. The most common side effect of neuraxial opioid is:
    • Sedation
    • Respiratory depression
    • Urinary retention
    • Pruritis

  76. Factors which cause exaggerated bradycardia (heart rate less than 40-50 beats/min) following spinal anaesthesia include all except:
    • Baseline heart rate less than 60 beats/min
    • Male gender
    • Older age
    • Non emergency surgery

  77. What is the osmolality of low osmolality WHO Oral rehydration solution?
    • 245 mOsm/L
    • 275 mOsm/L
    • 375 mOsm/L
    • 350 mOsm/L

  78. Peak incidence of acute Appendicitis is in the age of:
    • < 1 Year
    • 1 - 3 Years
    • 5 - 10 Years
    • 12 - 18 Years

  79. Which of the following is the most reliable test for diagnosis of acute Pancreatitis?
    • Serum Amylase
    • Serum Lipase
    • Leucocytosis
    • Hypercalcemia

  80. Splenectomy is indicated in the following conditions except:
    • Hereditary spherocytosis
    • Hereditary stomatocytosis
    • Thalassemia
    • Hypersplenism

  81. Ken river is a tributary of:
    • Godavari
    • Kaveri
    • Yamuna
    • Brahmaputra

  82. Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research (IGIDR) established by:
    • Mumbai University
    • Reserve Bank of India
    • U.P. Government
    • IHRD Ministry

  83. NABARD was established by the recommendation of:
    • A.M. Khusro Committee
    • Y.B. Chavan Committee
    • N.K.P. Salve Committee
    • Shivaraman Committee

  84. In 1980 Indira Gandhi Nationalised how many Banks?
    • 6
    • 8
    • 14
    • 18

  85. Thusharagiri waterfalls is situated in:
    • Wayanad
    • Kozhikode
    • Pathanamthitta
    • Idukki

  86. The place where Paliyam Sathyagraha held is now in which district?
    • Thrissur
    • Kottayam
    • Ernakulam
    • Kollam

  87. The Travancore Constitutional Reform Committee was chaired by:
    • A.J. John
    • Sir C.P. Ramaswami Iyer
    • P.G.N. Unnithan
    • C. Kesavan

  88. Name the person who resigned Presidentship of Indian National Congress in 1939.
    • Mahatma Gandhi
    • Subash Chandra Bose
    • Jawahar Lal Nehru
    • Pattabhi Sita Ramayya

  89. Which of the following Gandhian movement was withdrawn after Chouri-Choura incident?
    • Civil Disobedience Movement
    • Quit India Movement
    • Ahmedabad Mill Strike
    • Non-Cooperation Movement

  90. Which one of the following is written by Jyothi Rao Phule?
    • Sivaji’s Life
    • Vedic Home of the Aryans
    • Prabhudha Bharath
    • Viveka Vardhini

  91. The Advaitha Ashram at Aluva was founded by:
    • Brahmananda Sivayogi
    • Sri Sankaracharya
    • Chattampi Swamikal
    • Sri Narayanaguru

  92. Ezhava Memorial was submitted to:
    • Srimoolam Tirunal
    • Visakam Tirunal
    • Sethu Lakshmi bai
    • Chithira Tirunal Balaramavarma

  93. The Social-Reformer who met Mahatma Gandhi at Neyyattinkara?
    • Poikayil Yohannan
    • Ramakrishna Pilla
    • Vaikunda Swami
    • Sahodaran Ayyappan

  94. Name the person who is related with Kalyanadayini Sabha?
    • Vagbhadanandha
    • Ayyankali
    • K.P. Karuppan
    • Thycaud Ayya

  95. Which is not related with K.P. Kesava Menon?
    • Malabar Home Rule League
    • Mathrubhoomi
    • Ceylon High Commissioner
    • Andhra Governor

  96. The drillship deputed to study the secrets of lost Continent Zealand is:
    • Discoverer 534
    • Jodies Resolution
    • Enterprise
    • Deep Water KG 1

  97. Saturn’s largest moon:
    • Lapetus
    • Callisto
    • Titan
    • Atlas

  98. Kevin Durant is related with:
    • Basket Ball
    • VolleyBall
    • Cycling
    • Swimming

  99. Who penned the memoir ‘Advice and Dissent; My Life in Public Service’?
    • Jacob Thomas
    • Y.V. Reddy
    • Shashi Tharoor
    • T.P. Senkumar

  100. Phulpur Loksabha Constituency is in:
    • Bihar
    • West Bengal
    • Maharashtra
    • Uttar Pradesh

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