Lecturer in Computer Science Collegiate Education Answer Key 73/2018

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Post: Lecturer in Computer Science
Department: Collegiate Education
Category Code: 191/2017, 201/2017, 202/2017, 203/2017
Qualification: Masters Degree in Computer Science
Question Paper Code: 73/18
Date of Test: 05-07-2018


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  1. “Teaching method which plays learners in active learning situation are more likely to be effective than those which do not” – this statement was given by
    • Stephen. M. Corey
    • Sympson
    • Morrison
    • Miller

  2. The ultimate aim of a diagnostic test is
    • Remedial teaching
    • Assessment of weakness in learning
    • To measure pupil’s achievement
    • To grade the pupil

  3. Which of the following mean “being able to look at our own professional behaviour and practice with the intention of improving and developing”?
    • Mentoring
    • Professional development
    • Reflective practice
    • Team teaching

  4. In a classroom, a teacher observed that many of the students did not have structured computer programming notes. To equip the teacher for addressing this issue, which one of the following will you suggest as the best one?
    • Microteaching
    • Case study
    • Action Research
    • Workshop
    Question Error

  5. Which of the following free educational software is generally used as an interactive learning suit to the student?
    • Adobe Premiere
    • PhET
    • Libre Office Impress
    • Gimp

  6. Name of the research that the investigators attempt to trace on effect which has already occurred to its possible causes :
    • Historical Research
    • Action Research
    • Fundamental Research
    • Expost-facto Research

  7. Which of the following criteria is least suitable for a good research problem?
    • Interesting
    • Memorable
    • Innovative
    • Relevant

  8. The method of research which is free from sampling, control and validity of inference
    • Survey method
    • Historical method
    • Criterion-Reference method
    • Experimental method

  9. The abbreviation used in thesis writing when two or more successive footnotes refer to the same work with specific page number :
    • et.al
    • vide
    • N.B
    • ibid

  10. Which of the following is not related to a seminar?
    • Interactive process of thinking
    • Discussion with panel members
    • Nurturing of the higher cognition
    • Indepth presentation of the concept paper

  11. In a circular linked list the external pointer to the last node helps to :
    • Delete an item from the front
    • Add an item to the last position
    • Delete an item from the first position
    • All of these

  12. Of the following which is not an advantage in using a linked list data structure than a linear array?
    • No space wastage
    • Insertion and deletion without shifting
    • A particular element can be accessed directly
    • Nodes can be allocated dynamically

  13. Prefix form of the expression (a+b)/c*d*e is
    • +/**edca
    • **/+abcde
    • +/ed*c*ba
    • /+ab*c*de

  14. The possible operations in a dequeue are :
    • Insertion and deletion at front
    • Insertion at rear and deletion at front
    • Insertion and deletion at rear
    • Insertion and deletion at rear and front

  15. The initial heap created for the numbers 15,11,2,18,8,20 is
    • None of these

  16. Which sorting algorithm has an average time complexity of O(nlogn)?
    • Bubble sort
    • Insertion sort
    • Heap sort
    • Selection sort

  17. Which rotation is to be performed for balancing when 30 is to be added to the AVL tree below :
    • RR rotation
    • RL rotation
    • LL rotation
    • LR rotation

  18. The obtained after deleting 20 from the binary search tree below is
    • None of these

  19. In a 5-way B-tree maximum and minimum number of key values in a node are
    • 2 and 4
    • 3 and 5
    • 3 and 4
    • 2 and 5

  20. The average number of comparisons in selection sort and insertion sort are respectively
    • n(n–l)/2 and n(n–l)/4
    • n(n–l)/4 and n(n–l)/2
    • n(n–l)/2 and n(n–l)/2
    • n(n–l)/4 and n(n–l)/4

  21. The time complexity of merging two sorted arrays of size m and n is :
    • O(mn)
    • O(m+n)
    • O(mn)
    • None of these

  22. The use of threaded binary tree helps to :
    • Reduce the space occupied by nodes
    • Traversals can be done without stack space
    • Less number of pointers are required
    • None of these

  23. The depth first and breadth first traversals of the tree below produces
    • 5, 3, 6, 1, 4, 2 and 5, 3, 1, 2, 4, 6
    • 5, 3, 4, 6, 1, 2 and 5, 3, 1, 2, 4, 6
    • 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 5
    • 5, 6, 4, 3, 1, 2 and 5, 3, 6, 4, 2, 1
    Question Error

  24. The order of visiting the edges using Prim’s algorithm for minimum cost spanning tree starting from node “e” are
    • ef, de, bd, ad
    • ef, de, ad, ab
    • ab, ef, ad, de
    • None of these

  25. Dijktra’s algorithm finds :
    • Minimum cost spanning tree
    • Shortest path from one node to all other nodes
    • Shortest path between all pair of nodes
    • None of these

  26. In a noiseless channel with a bandwidth of 4000 Hz transmitting signal with 2 signal levels, what is the theoretical maximum bitrate achieved?
    • 10000 bps
    • 6000 bps
    • 8000 bps
    • 4000 bps

  27. In the fibre optic cables, what makes the ray to undergo reflection?
    • Angle of Incidence < Critical Angle
    • Angle of Incidence = Critical Angle
    • Angle of Incidence > Critical Angle
    • Angle of Incidence <= Critical Angle

  28. The layer in which datagram switching is normally done?
    • Network Layer
    • Transport Layer
    • Ethernet Layer
    • Physical Layer

  29. The Hamming Distance D between the two code words (10101011 and 11010101) is
    • 4
    • 5
    • 6
    • 8

  30. Bridge is a connecting device which operates in the following layers :
    • Physical layer and Data Link layer
    • Data link layer and Network layer
    • Network layer and Physical layer
    • Data link layer and Transport layer

  31. The multiplexing technique used for digital signals is
    • Frequency Division Multiplexing
    • Wave Division Multiplexing
    • Carrier Division Multiple Access
    • Time Division Multiplexing

  32. Five channels each with 110 kHz bandwidth are to be multiplexed together. In order to prevent interference there is a guard band of 20 kHz between the channels. The minimum bandwidth of the link is atleast
    • 640 kHz
    • 650 kHz
    • 630 kHz
    • 550 kHz

  33. The address space of Ipv4 is
    • 2 power 128
    • 2 power 16
    • 2 power 48
    • 2 power 32

  34. MTU ( Maximum Transfer Unit) in bytes for Ethernet is
    • 576
    • 1500
    • 296
    • 4352

  35. Which header field in Ipv6 addressing takeover the function of Ipv4 Service Type field?
    • Header checksum
    • Hop limit
    • Priority and flow label
    • Encrypted Security Payload

  36. ARP reply is
    • Broadcast
    • Multicast
    • Unicast
    • Anycast

  37. Two node / Three node instability is a problem that happens in
    • Distance Vector Routing
    • Link State Routing
    • Path Vector Routing
    • Shortest Path Routing

  38. Which among the following is false?
    • SCTP is a reliable protocol
    • SCTP is a byte oriented protocol
    • SCTP combines the best features of TCP and UDP
    • SCTP is a message oriented protocol

  39. A situation where two or more threads access and manipulate the same data concurrently and the outcome of the execution depends on the particular order in which access takes place is called :
    • aging
    • race condition
    • data consistency
    • starvation

  40. Bit used for trapping Illegal addresses is :
    • access
    • protection
    • error
    • valid - invalid

  41. The offset of the logical address must be :
    • greater than the segment number
    • between 0 and segment limit
    • between 1 and the segment number
    • greater than segment limit

  42. If the resources are always preempted from the same process, ______ can occur.
    • starvation
    • deadlock
    • system crash
    • aging

  43. External fragmentation will not occur when
    • best fit is used
    • worst fit is used
    • first fit is used
    • it will always occur

  44. Object modules generated by assembler that contains unresolved external references are resolved by
    • Operating System
    • Loader
    • Linker
    • Compiler

  45. Special software that is used to create a job queue is called
    • Loader
    • Spooler
    • Linker
    • Linkage editor

  46. Which of the following permanent database that has an entry for each terminal symbol?
    • Literal table
    • Identifier table
    • Terminal table
    • Stack

  47. A relationship between processes such that each has some part (critical section) which must not be executed while the critical section of another is being executed, is known as
    • Semaphore
    • Mutual exclusion
    • Message passing
    • Multiprocessing

  48. How many state can a process be in?
    • 3
    • 4
    • 5
    • 2

  49. Which of the following is the simplest way of deadlock recovery?
    • Pre-empt resource
    • Lock one of the processes
    • Roll back
    • Kill one of the processes

  50. The directory structure used in Unix file system is called
    • Directed acyclic graph
    • Hierarchical directory
    • Tree structured directory
    • None of these

  51. The degree of multiprogramming is controlled by
    • CPU scheduler
    • Job scheduler
    • Medium term scheduler
    • Kernel

  52. The protocol which writes the information directly into main memory is
    • Write through
    • Write back
    • Write first
    • None of the mentioned

  53. Which register in the processor is single directional?
    • Temp
    • MDR
    • PC
    • MAR

  54. Highly encoded schemes that use compact codes to specify a small number of functions in each micro instruction is
    • Horizontal organisation
    • Vertical organisation
    • Diagonal organisation
    • None of these

  55. The extra time needed to bring the data into memory in case of a miss is called
    • Delay
    • Propagation time
    • Miss penalty
    • None of these

  56. A RAM chip has a capacity of 1024 words of 8 bits each (1 K × 8). The number of 2 × 4 decoders with enable line needed to construct a 16 K × 16 RAM from 1 K × 8 RAM is
    • 4
    • 7
    • 6
    • 5

  57. The number of clauses formed from the logical expression (a AND b) OR (c AND d)
    • 4
    • 3
    • 2
    • 1

  58. Best first search algorithm is
    • Depth first approach
    • Combination of depth first and breadth first
    • Breadth first
    • None of these

  59. “A book consist of chapters and a book is a type of publication”. In object oriented analysis, this can be described in a class model using which of the following?
    • Association and realization
    • Aggregation and generalisation
    • Generalisation and aggregation
    • None of these

  60. In spiral model, for risk analysis, we use
    • Prototyping
    • Waterfall model
    • Agile model
    • None of these

  61. An automated query response system using AI techniques is to be developed, where the technology and domain knowledge is new, which life cycle model is most suited?
    • Waterfall
    • Iterative waterfall
    • Prototyping
    • Spiral

  62. If (a>=200) and (a<=400)
    C=true;
    Else
    C=false;
    Which white box testing strategy can ensure maximum correctness for the above code fragment?
    • Statement coverage criteria
    • Path coverage criteria
    • Branch coverage criteria
    • None of these

  63. One of the most important structured analysis and design tool is
    • DFD
    • Deployment diagram
    • Use-case diagram
    • None of these

  64. Which of the following is a black-box testing strategy?
    • Path testing
    • Equivalence class partitioning
    • Branch testing
    • None of these

  65. The UML behavioural modelling consists of which all diagrams?
    • Class and object diagrams
    • Component and deployment diagrams
    • Activity and interaction diagrams
    • None of these

  66. Which of the following concurrency control protocols ensure both conflict serializability and freedom from deadlock?
    1. 2-phase locking
    2. Time-stamp ordering
    • l only
    • 2 only
    • Neither 1 nor 2
    • Both 1 and 2

  67. Which one of the following statements is false?
    • Any relation with two attributes is in BCNF.
    • A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in a 3NF relation.
    • A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in a BCNF relation.
    • Any relation with two attributes is in BCNF.

  68. Consider a relational schema R=(A,B,C,D,E,H) on which the following functional dependencies
    hold : {A → B, BC → D, E → C, D → A}.What are the candidate keys of R?
    • AE, BE, DE
    • AEH, BEH, DEH
    • AEH, BEH, BCH
    • AE, BE

  69. Given relations r(w, x) and s(y, z) the result of select distinct w, x from r, s is guaranteed to be same as r, provided
    • r and s have no duplicates
    • s has no duplicates and r is non-empty
    • r and s have the same number of tuples
    • r has no duplicates and s is non-empty

  70. Which one of the following statements about normal forms is false?
    • BCNF is stricter than 3 NF.
    • Lossless, dependency preserving decomposition into 3NF is always possible.
    • Lossless, dependency preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible.
    • Any relation with two attributes is in BCNF.

  71. Let El and E2 be two entities in an ER diagram with simple single valued attributes. Rl and R2 are two relationships between El and E2, where Rl is one-to-many and R2 is many-to-many. Rl and R2 do not have any attributes of their own. What is the minimum number of tables required to represent this situation in the relational model?
    • 2
    • 3
    • 4
    • 5

  72. Consider the following relational schemas :
    Suppliers (sid:integer, sname:string, city:string, street:string)
    Parts(pid:integer, pname:string, color:string)
    Catalog(sid:integer, pid:integer, cost:real)
    Consider the following relational query on the above database :
    SELECT S.sname FROM Suppliers S WHERE S.sid NOT IN (SELECT C.sid FROM Catalog C WHERE C.pid NOT IN(SELECT P.pid FROM Parts P WHERE P.color < > ‘blue’)).
    Assume that relations corresponding to the above schema are not empty. Which one of the following is the correct interpretation of the above query?
    • Find the names of all suppliers who have supplied a non-blue part.
    • Find the names of all suppliers who have not supplied a non-blue part.
    • Find the names of all suppliers who have supplied only blue parts
    • Find the names of all suppliers who have not supplied only blue parts.

  73. What is the output of this program?
    #include <iostream>
    using namespace std; int main()
    {
    int arr[] = {4, 5, 6, 7};
    int *p = (arr + 1);
    cout <<*p;
    return 0;
    }
    • 4
    • 5
    • 6
    • 7

  74. What is the result of the following piece of code:
    public class Person{
    public void talk(){
    System.out.print(“I am a Person”);
    }
    }
    public class Student extends Person{
    public void talk(){
    System.out.print(“I am a Student”);
    }
    }
    public class Test{
    public static void main(String args[]){
    Person p = new Student();
    p.talk();
    }
    }
    • I am a Person
    • I am a student
    • I am a Person I am a Student
    • I am a Student I am a Person
    Question Error

  75. Which of the following is true?
    1. A class can extend more than one class.
    2. A class can extend only one class but many interfaces.
    3. An interface can extend many interfaces.
    4. An interface can implement many interfaces.
    5. A class can extend one class and implement many interfaces.
    • 1 and 2
    • 2 and 4
    • 3 and 5
    • 3 and 4
    Question Error

  76. Suppose a class has public visibility. In this class we define a protected method. Which of the following statements is correct?
    • This method is only accessible from inside the class itself and from inside all subclasses.
    • In a class, you cannot declare methods with a lower visibility than the visibility of the class in which it is defined.
    • From within protected methods you do not have access to public methods.
    • This method is accessible from within the class itself and from within all classes defined in the same package as the class itself.

  77. Java virtual machine is
    • Compiler
    • Assembler
    • Interpreter
    • None of these

  78. In 8086 microprocessor the following has the highest priority among all type interrupts :
    • Single Step
    • DIV 0
    • TYPE 255
    • OVER FLOW

  79. The size of each segment in 8086 is :
    • 64 kb
    • 24 kb
    • 50 kb
    • 16 kb

  80. Which interrupt is not level sensitive in 8085?
    • RST6.5 is a raising edge-trigging interrupt.
    • RST7.5 is a raising edge-trigging interrupt.
    • "RST6.5 is a raising edge-trigging interrupt." & "RST7.5 is a raising edge-trigging interrupt."
    • None of these

  81. Who comments the famous Temple Entry Proclamation as ‘a miracle of modern times’?
    • K. Kelappan
    • Gandhiji
    • A. K. Gopalan
    • Sri. Chitira Tirunal

  82. The first Malayalam journal Rajya Samacharam was published in the year
    • 1844
    • 1874
    • 1814
    • 1847

  83. Who is often described as the national poet of Kerala?
    • G. Sankara Kuruppu
    • Kumaran Asan
    • Ulloor
    • Vallathol
    Question Error

  84. Who was the editor of the newspaper Mitavadi?
    • C. Krishnan
    • K.P. Kesava Menon
    • C.V. Kunhiraman
    • Maulavi Sahib

  85. Atma Vidya Sangham was founded by
    • Sahodharan Ayyappan
    • Swami Vagbhatananda
    • Ayyankali
    • K.P. Karuppan

  86. Who is the newly appointed Controller and Auditor General of India?
    • Shashi Kant Sharma
    • Rajnish Kumar
    • Hari Om Singh
    • Rajiv Mehrishi

  87. Which state government has launched the ‘Solar Briefcase’ to provide electricity in remote areas?
    • Rajasthan
    • Jharkhand
    • Uttarakhand
    • Tamil Nadu

  88. Who is the recipient of Mathruboomi Literacy award 2017?
    • Punathil Kunjabdulla
    • M.K. Sanu
    • M. Leelavati
    • C. Radhakrishnan

  89. Who is the author of the book INDIA AFTER GANDHI?
    • Gurucharan Das
    • Ramachandra Guha
    • Jawaharlal Nehru
    • Shashi Tharoor

  90. Who inaugurated the Kudumbasree Project of the Government of Kerala in the year 1998?
    • E.K. Nayanar
    • K.R. Narayanan
    • A.B. Vajpayee
    • Sankar Dayal Sharma

  91. Which Amendment Act is known as Mini Constitution?
    • 73rd
    • 44th
    • 42nd
    • 86th

  92. Which among the following right cannot be suspended during the time of National Emergency?
    • Right to Religion
    • Right to Life
    • Right to Constitutional Remedies
    • Cultural and Educational Rights

  93. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Minorities to establish and administer Educational Institutions according to their own choice?
    • Article 30
    • Article 29
    • Article 32
    • Article 21

  94. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the centre and the states falls under its
    • Advisory Jurisdiction
    • Appellate Jurisdiction
    • Original Jurisdiction
    • Constitutional jurisdiction

  95. The resolution for removing the Vice President of India can be moved in the
    • Lok Sabha alone
    • Either House of Parliament
    • Joint Sitting of Parliament
    • Rajya Sabha alone

  96. What is the time limit to get information under RTI Act 2005?
    • 30 Days
    • 45 Days
    • 60 Days
    • 15 Days

  97. In which year the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act was passed in India?
    • 1950
    • 1993
    • 2005
    • 1989

  98. Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY) is a major programme for
    • Laying roads in rural areas
    • Self-employment scheme
    • Construction of houses to the poor
    • Construction of slum dwelling units

  99. The Environment (Protection) Bill was passed by the Parliament of India in
    • 1986
    • 1984
    • 1993
    • 1990

  100. In India child labour is defined as working child in the age group of_____ years and below.
    • 10
    • 18
    • 13
    • 14

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