Assistant Professor in Pathology 331/2016 Answer Key

Lung_tissue_pathology_due_to_SARS

Post: Assistant Professor in Pathology
Department: Medical Education
Category Code: 331/16
Qualification:  MD/MS (Pathology) + Three years Teaching Experience
Date of Test: 09-08-2018


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  1. Which of the following changes best describe the pathophysiology involved in the production of pulmonary edema in patients with congestive heart failure?
    • widespread endothelial damage
    • decreased plasma oncotic pressure
    • increased hydrostatic pressure
    • acute lymphatic obstruction

  2. Factor V Leiden mutation
    • Predispose to thrombosis
    • Predispose to bleeding
    • Is associated with anti-phospholipid antibodies
    • Is an acquired disorder

  3. Leukotrienes are derived from arachidonic acid through action of this enzyme
    • Phospholipase
    • Cyclooxygenase
    • 5-Lipooxygenase
    • Lipoxins

  4. Which is characteristic of irreversible injury?
    • Mitochondrial changes
    • Fatty change
    • Plasma membrane blebs
    • Cell membrane defects

  5. Which of the following is known as the membrane attack complex
    • C 3b
    • C 1-9
    • C 5b-C9
    • C 3a-C5a

  6. An arterial thromboembolic is most likely to produce a hemorrhagic infarct in which organ?
    • kidney
    • liver
    • lungs
    • bone

  7. The antibody that mediates hypersensitivity reactions and is most commonly found on surface of mast cells
    • IgA
    • IgG
    • IgM
    • IgE

  8. These cells can lyse tumor cells or virus infected cells without prior sensitization
    • B cells
    • T cells
    • NK cells
    • Macrophages

  9. Deficiency in homogentisic oxidase results in this condition
    • Albinism
    • Alkaptonuria
    • Phenylketonuria
    • Galactosemia

  10. Which of the following finding is most valuable in confirming Goodpasture's syndrome?
    • diffuse linear staining of GBM with IgG
    • granular lumpy bumpy deposits of IgG
    • urine culture for resistant E.coli
    • diffuse thickening of GBM on electron microscopy

  11. Which of the following disease of the heart presents as early cyanosis?
    • Atrial septal defect
    • Patent ductus arteriosus
    • Truncus arteriosus
    • Atrioventricular septal defect

  12. Which of the following diseases result from a familial absence of high density lipoprotein?
    • Krabbe's
    • Gaucher's
    • Tangier
    • TaySachs

  13. The medical disorder of "Minamata disease" is due to exposure to high levels of
    • Arsenic
    • Mercury
    • Lead
    • Cadmium

  14. Hemoglobin Bart's is composed of
    • Four alpha chains
    • Four gamma chains
    • Four beta chains
    • Two alpha, two beta chains

  15. The substitution of a single nucleotide base with a different base result in
    • Frameshift mutation
    • Genome mutation
    • Trinucleotide repeat
    • Point mutation

  16. A 17-year-old receives whole body radiation as part of a preparatory regimen for bone marrow transplantation. Which of the following cells and tissues in the body is most likely to remain unaltered by the effects of this therapeutic radiation?
    • Neurons of cerebral cortex
    • Erythropoietic cells of bone marrow
    • Spermatogonia of testicular tubules
    • Small intestinal epithelium

  17. The role of p53 in maintaining the integrity of genome is by activating
    • cyclins
    • BAX
    • bcl2
    • CDK

  18. Bernad-Soulier syndrome is a defect in platelet
    • Aggregation
    • Adhesion
    • Release reaction
    • Morphology

  19. Councilman bodies are seen in
    • Wilson disease
    • Acute viral hepatitis
    • Alcoholic hepatitis
    • Autoimmune hepatitis

  20. Mutation in BRCA-2 is located in
    • 17q21.3
    • 17p13
    • 13q 12-13
    • 11p15.5

  21. Most common paraneoplastic syndrome associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the lung.
    • Hypercalcemia
    • Cushing syndrome
    • SIADH
    • Carcinoid syndrome

  22. Which is NOT TRUE in Neuroblastoma
    • Germline mutations in ALK is described
    • Homer Wright rosettes seen
    • VMA levels can be used for screening patients
    • Nmyc amplification have a better prognosis

  23. Which is NOT TRUE about TRALI
    • is commonly associated with transfusion of packed erythrocytes
    • there is activation of neutrophils in the lung microvasculature
    • increased sequestration and sensitization of neutrophils in the microvasculature of the lung
    • is commonly associated with transfusion of products, such as fresh frozen plasma and platelets

  24. Which of the following statements in NOT true of red infarcts?
    • It occurs in organs with double blood supply
    • Commonly found in the heart and kidneys
    • Seen in venous occlusion with infarction
    • Seen in organs with well developed anastomosis

  25. Disaccharidase deficiency is classified under which of the following major causes of malabsorption syndrome
    • Defective Intraluminal digestion
    • Lymphatic obstruction
    • Primary mucosal cell abnormalities
    • Reduced small intestinal surface area

  26. Which of the following is Oncogenic RNA virus
    • HTLV-1
    • HPV
    • EBV
    • HHV-8

  27. Function of thiamine
    • synthesis of DNA and RNA
    • coenzyme in oxidative decarboxylation of alpha ketoacids
    • respiratory enzyme in the cytochrome enzyme
    • all of these

  28. Mutation in Bruton tyrosine kinase result in
    • Di George syndrome
    • X linked Agammaglobulinemia
    • Isolated IgA deficiency
    • Hyper IgM syndrome

  29. The receptors on T cells used by the HIV strain that is effective in transmitting the infection is
    • CCR4
    • CXCR5
    • CCR5
    • CXCR4

  30. Class I MHC molecules are encoded by gene loci EXCEPT
    • HLA-D
    • HLA-C
    • HLA-B
    • HLA-A

  31. Where in the brain is Negri body located in rabies?
    • Blood vessel
    • Dura
    • Glial cells
    • Neuron

  32. Ritter disease is also known as
    • Gas gangrene
    • Hidradenitis suppurativa
    • Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
    • Quinsy sore throat

  33. Fungi within small cysts in the Virchow Robin perivascular space is characteristic of
    • Mucor
    • Aspergillus
    • Candida
    • Cryptococcus neoformans

  34. Which of the following is NOT related to Alzheimer disease
    • Neuro fibrillary tangles
    • Amyloid plaques
    • Lafora bodies
    • Hirano bodies

  35. The associated molecular change in the evolution of colorectal tumor from late adenoma to carcinoma is
    • loss of APC gene chromosome 5q21
    • inactivation of p53 chromosome 17p13
    • loss of tumor suppressor gene chromosome 18q21
    • muatation of K-RAS on chromosome 12p12

  36. Which is NOT true of isochromosome
    • An isochromosome is formed when the centromere divides transversely rather than longitudinally
    • An isochromosome shows loss of one arm with duplication of the other
    • Isochromosome accounts for upto 15% of all cases of Turner Syndrome
    • Isochromosome accounts for upto 15% of all cases of Klinefelter Syndrome

  37. All are vitamin K dependent factors EXCEPT
    • Factor 2
    • Factor 6
    • Factor 7
    • Factor 9

  38. Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by deficiency in the synthesis of
    • Type I collagen
    • Type II collagen
    • Type III collagen
    • Type IV collagen

  39. All are premalignant lesions of skin EXCEPT
    • Actinic keratosis
    • Seborrheic keratosis
    • Bowens disease
    • Xeroderma pigmentosum

  40. Which of the following components of blood is mainly responsible for transporting exogenous (dietary) triglyceride from the intestine following a meal?
    • Apoprotein (apolipoprotein)
    • Chylomicron
    • Lipoprotein lipase
    • Oxidized low density lipoprotein

  41. A liver biopsy of 45 year old man with a history of alcohol abuse shows cirrhosis, and individual hepatocytes contain red, globular inclusions positive for cytokeratin with immunohistochemical staining. Which of the following structural elements are these intracellular globules most likely to contain?
    • Actin and myosin
    • Cholesterol esters
    • Intermediate filaments
    • Fibronectin

  42. Which is NOT True of Bombay blood group?
    • Lack of A, B, H antigen on erythrocyte
    • Can donate red blood cells to any member of the ABO blood group system
    • They cannot receive blood from A, B or O group donor
    • Express H antigen on erythrocyte

  43. Embryonic hemoglobin is composed of
    • Alpha and beta
    • Epsilon and gamma
    • Gamma and beta
    • Zeta and epsilon

  44. 45-year old man has hepatosplenomegaly with pancytopenia. On biopsy of liver large cells are seen with a crumpled tissue paper appearance of cytoplasm. Which of the following may be deficient in this patinet?
    • Glucocerebrosidase
    • Sphingomyelinase
    • L-Iduronase
    • Hexosaminidase

  45. Which of the tumor marker is associated Breast cancer?
    • CA-19-9
    • CA-15-3
    • CA-125
    • Carcinoembryonic antigen

  46. Genomic Imprinting with Deletion in maternal chromosome is seen in
    • Fragile X syndrome
    • Huntington disease
    • Prader villi syndrome
    • Angelmans syndrome

  47. Which is true about Dilated cardiomyopathy?
    • results in systolic (contractile) dysfunction
    • results in diastolic (relaxation) dysfunction
    • results in stiff, noncompliant myocardium
    • is the least common type

  48. Which is NOT TRUE of MPO-ANCAs?
    • Are associated with microscopic polyangiitis
    • Are associated Churg-Strauss syndrome
    • Do not form circulating immune complexes
    • Associated with polyarteritis nodosa

  49. Vegetations Libman-Sacks endocarditis (LSE) are
    • small vegetations on either or both sides of the valve leaflets
    • warty vegetations along the lines of closure of the valve leaflets
    • large, irregular masses on the valve cusps that can extend onto the chordae
    • small usually attached at the line of closure of valve

  50. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about hepcidin?
    • Iron absorption is regulated by hepcidin
    • Is synthesized and released from the liver
    • Anemia of chronic disease is caused in part by inflammatory mediators that increase hepcidin
    • Hepcidin increases erythropoietin production

  51. Which of the following is NOT true about PNH?
    • Red cells that are deficient CD59 are seen
    • Ham's acidified test positivity
    • Acquired mutation in PIGA gene
    • Increased NAP score

  52. Hb A2 is increased in
    • Thalassemia major
    • Thalassemia minor
    • Sickle cell disease
    • Iron deficiency anemia

  53. Hb H inclusions are seen in
    • Thalassemia minor
    • Thalassemia major
    • Hereditary spherocytosis
    • Alpha thalassemia

  54. Which is associated with better prognosis in CLL/SLL?
    • the presence of deletions of 11q and 17p
    • deletion of 13q14
    • the expression of ZAP-70
    • the presence of NOTCH1 mutations

  55. Which of the following is NOT true about Anaplastic Large-Cell Lymphoma
    • t (2, 5)/p80 or ALK-1 is positive in all cases
    • Hallmark cells seen
    • CD 30 positive
    • Is a T Cell lymphoma

  56. Döhle bodies are
    • patches of dilated endoplasmic reticulum that appear as sky-blue cytoplasmic "puddles"
    • coarser and darker than the normal neutrophilic granules
    • seen associated with Hurler's syndrome
    • cytoplasmic vacuoles in lymphocytes

  57.      Collapse of lung secondary to air in the pleural cavity is an example of
    • Resorption atelectasis
    • Patchy atelectasis
    • Compression atelectasis
    • Contraction atelectasis

  58. Which is NOT TRUE about Asbestos exposure
    • cause parenchymal interstitial fibrosis and pleural plaques
    • is linked with malignant pleural and peritoneal mesotheliomas
    • asbestosis is the most common pneumoconiosis in the world
    • cause recurrent pleural effusions

  59. Pulmonary hemorrhage syndromes are all EXCEPT
    • Goodpasture syndrome
    • Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis
    • Vasculitis-associated hemorrhage
    • Pulmonary embolism

  60. Which is NOT TRUE about Minimal Change disease
    • is the most frequent cause of nephrotic syndrome in children
    • is the most frequent cause of nephritic syndrome in children
    • the glomeruli are normal by light microscopy
    • uniform and diffuse effacement of foot processes of podocytes on EM

  61. Renal osteodystrophy differs from nutritional and metabolic rickets due to the presence of
    • Hyperphosphatemia
    • Hypophosphatemia
    • Hypercalcemia
    • Hypocalcemia

  62. The first event in the Pathogenesis of Cholesterol Stones is
    • Infection
    • Supersaturation of bile with cholesterol
    • Bile stasis
    • Mucus secretion in the lumen

  63. Which of the following is NOT associated with familial primary hyperparathyroidism
    • MEN1
    • MEN 2A
    • MEN 2B
    • Familial hypo calciuric hypercalcemia

  64. Which of the following is NOT associated with celiac disease
    • Enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma
    • Dermatitis herpetiformis
    • Tropheryma whippelii
    • Gluten sensitive enteropathy

  65. All the following are associated with Tuberous sclerosis EXCEPT
    • Facial angiofibroma
    • Cortical (CNS) tubers
    • Renal angiomyolipoma
    • Adenomatous polyps of GIT

  66. Features of Autoimmune Hepatitis include all EXCEPT
    • Type 1 autoimmune hepatitis is most characteristically associated with antinuclear and anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ANA and ASMA)
    • Type 2 autoimmune hepatitis is associated with anti-liver kidney microsomal autoantibodies (anti-LKM1)
    • Plasma cell predominance on microscopy
    • Granulomatous destruction of small to medium sized intrahepatic bile ducts

  67. Which of the following testicular tumor is most radiosensitive?
    • Immature Teratoma
    • Seminoma
    • Spermatocytic seminoma
    • Yolk sac tumor

  68. Which type of breast cancer has the highest incidence of bilaterality
    • Mucinous carcinoma
    • Papillary carcinoma
    • Inflammatory carcinoma
    • Lobular carcinoma

  69. All the following in cervical cancer prevention are recommendations by FDA (USA), EXCEPT
    • HPV vaccines for protection against HPV types 16 and 18
    • HPV vaccines for protection against HPV types 6 and 11
    • Vaccination for boys as well as girls by age 11 to 12, which offer protection for up to 10 years
    • Cervical cancer screening by PAP smear to be discontinued

  70. Endometrial hyperplasia is associated with all EXCEPT
    • Excess progesterone
    • Polycystic ovarian syndrome
    • Functioning granulosa cell tumors of the ovary
    • Menopause

  71. Which of the thyroid cancer has the best prognosis
    • Medullary carcinoma
    • Papillary carcinoma
    • Follicular carcinoma
    • Anaplastic carcinoma

  72. Following are common complications of pyogenic osteomyelitis EXCEPT
    • Spread to the adjacent joint
    • Secondary Amyloidosis
    • Septicemia
    • Sinus tract formation

  73. HLA B27 is associated with
    • Rheumatoid Arthritis
    • Osteo Arthritis
    • Ankylosing Spondylitis
    • Suppurative Arthritis

  74. The enzyme used as a marker for alcohol abuse is
    • Gamma glutamyl transferase
    • Alanine aminotransferase
    • Aspartate amino transferase
    • Alkaline phosphatase

  75. The inflammatory lesion seen in acute appendicitis is initiated by
    • Bacterial infection
    • Luminal obstruction
    • Fecal material within the lumen
    • Ischemia

  76. The principal defect in chronic granulomatous disease is in
    • Chemotaxis
    • Phagocytosis
    • Oxidative burst
    • Lysosomal function

  77. Serum Alpha feto protein level is elevated in
    • Hepatocellular carcinoma
    • Metastatic carcinoma
    • Cholangiocarcinoma
    • Klatskin tumor

  78. Pneumocystis pneumonia typically in the lungs demonstrates a
    • lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates within the alveolar sacs
    • intra alveolar cotton candy exudates
    • accumulation of neutrophils is one lobar segment
    • neutrophils in the peribronchiolar area

  79. Severe deficiency of coagulation factor IX produces a disorder
    • Hemophilia A
    • Hemophilia B
    • Von Willebrand Disease type 1
    • Von Willebrand Disease type 2

  80. The most common cause of acute bacterial meningitis in neonates is
    • Neisseria meningitidis
    • H. Influenza
    • E. Coli
    • Streptococcus pneumoniae

  81. Garo Hills is located in
    • Sikkim
    • Tripura
    • Meghalaya
    • Assam

  82. The Gandhi Sagar Dam is constructed over which of the following river?
    • Ganga
    • Chambal
    • Kaveri
    • Hoogli

  83. In India Jowar and Ragi are largely grown in which of the following types of soil?
    • Alluvial soil
    • Laterite soil
    • Black soil
    • Red soil
    Question Error

  84. Name the Indian state with the longest coastal line
    • Kerala
    • Maharashtra
    • West Bengal
    • Gujarat

  85. Choose the scheme started by the Government of India for providing food to senior citizens who cannot live on their own
    • Make in India
    • Annapurna
    • National Maternity Benefit Scheme
    • Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awas Yojana

  86. Who was the leader of the Chittagong Armoury Raid?
    • Surya Sen
    • Rash Behari Bose
    • Subash Chandra Bose
    • Bhagat Singh

  87. Which session of Indian National Congress was presided by Gandhiji?
    • Bombay
    • Ahmadabad
    • Belgaum
    • Pune

  88. Select the organization that secured the Nobel Peace Prize in 2017
    • Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons
    • International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons
    • International Atomic Energy Agency
    • International Campaign to Ban Landmines

  89. Which of the following film was selected as the 'Best Feature Film' for the 65th Indian National Film Awards?
    • Mom
    • Irada
    • Nagar Kirtan
    • Village Rockstars

  90. Who won the Nobel Peace Prize in Literature in the year 2016?
    • Bob Dylan
    • Herta Muller
    • Alice Munro
    • Yo Yan
    Question Error

  91. Who was the Guru of Thyccaud Ayyavu?
    • Chattampi Swamikkal
    • Vaikunda Swamikkal
    • Dr. Palpu
    • Pandit Karuppan

  92. How many gold medals were secured by India in the Gold Coast Commonwealth Games 2018?
    • 26
    • 45
    • 25
    • 20

  93. Who was the leader of Nair Service Society?
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • C. Narayanan Nair
    • Mannathu Padmanabhan
    • K.P. Kesava Menon

  94. Which district is known as the 'Gateway of Kerala'?
    • Palakkad
    • Kollam
    • Ernakulam
    • Thiruvananthapuram

  95. Who was the author of the book, 'Kanneerum Kinnavum'?
    • E.M.S. Namboothiripad
    • T.K. Madhavan
    • M.P. Bhattathiripad
    • V.T. Bhattathiripad

  96. Which district of Kerala has the highest percentage of literacy?
    • Ernakulam
    • Thrissur
    • Kottayam
    • Kozhikode

  97. Which colonial power constructed the Thangasseri Fort?
    • French
    • Portuguese
    • English
    • Dutch

  98. Who was the first Chief Justice of Kerala?
    • V. Balakrishna Eradi
    • Arjit Pasayat
    • K. Sankaran
    • K.T. Koshi

  99. Who was the Governor General of India when the Vernacular Press Act was passed?
    • Lord Lytton
    • Lord Curzon
    • Lord Ripon
    • Lord Dalhousie

  100. In the revolt of 1857, Rani Lakshmi Bai of Jhansi was defeated by the English General
    • Daniel Harvey
    • Charles Ross
    • Hugh Rose
    • Robert Clerk

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