Rehabilitation Technician Health Services 576/2017 Answer Key

wheelchair abandaned


Post: Rehabilitation Technician Gr II
Department: Health Services
Category Code: 576/17
Qualification: Plus two + Degree in Prosthetics and Orthotic; Diploma in Prosthetics and Orthotics + One year experience
Date of Test: 03-11-2018


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  1. Muilenburg prosthetics consists of
    • Socket, pylon and foot
    • Socket and foot
    • Simple insole to which toe fillers on spacers formed from foam are bonded
    • Simple insole and molded plastic for toe fillers

  2. Collins partial-foot prosthesis is designed to resist
    • Dorsiflexion
    • Plantar flexion
    • Eversion
    • Inversion

  3. The PTB supracondylar, suprapatellar (PTB-SCSP) socket does not provide
    • Increased mediolateral stability
    • Increased anteroposterior stability
    • Increased functional kneeling
    • Increased area of pressure distribution

  4. Which one is the advantage of sleeve suspension?
    • Provides added knee stability
    • Suspension is greatly decreased if the sleeve is punctured
    • Perspiration may build up under the sleeve and create skin irritation or hygiene problems
    • Helps minimize socket pistoning

  5. Jaipur foot is based on which of the following design?
    • Single axis
    • SACH
    • Flexible keel dynamic response
    • Multi axis

  6. The possible cause of knee remain extension in loading response is
    • Foot too anterior
    • Foot too posterior
    • Heel too soft
    • Heel too high

  7. IRC socket design provides
    • Better function
    • Better Alignment
    • Better Proprioception
    • Better Suspension

  8. The pelvic band and hip joint suspension is used for
    • Short stump
    • Long stump
    • Medium stump
    • Very short stump

  9. Which of the following may be described as one of the cause of abducted gait?
    • Weak hip abductors
    • Abducted socket
    • Prosthesis too long
    • Insufficient support by the lateral socket wall

  10. Which of the following factor is not evaluated during socket trial?
    • Suspension
    • Alignment
    • Distribution of weight bearing pressure and biomechanical forces
    • Freedom of ROM of proximal joint

  11. In very light weight transfemoral prosthesis CG shifted to
    • Upward and towards sound side
    • Upward and towards prosthetic side
    • Downward and towards sound side
    • Downward and towards prosthetic side

  12. Socket flexion angle in alignment is provided for
    • Better control of flexors
    • Better control of extensors
    • Better weight bearing
    • Better suspension

  13. The role of calf suspension in stance phase is to
    • Control Flexion
    • Control Extension
    • Control Hyperextention
    • Control Rotation

  14. The ICOR of four bar knee in flexion locates
    • Superior and Posterior
    • Superior and Anterior
    • Inferior and Posterior
    • Inferior and Anterior

  15. The involuntary stability of knee joint is achieved by
    • Shifting mechanical axis of knee anterior to TKA
    • Shifting mechanical axis of knee posterior to TKA
    • shifting mechanical axis of knee medial to MKA
    • Shifting mechanical axis of knee lateral to MKA

  16. The forearm is set in initial flexion in which type of socket?
    • Northwestern socket
    • AHI socket
    • Muenster socket
    • Floating brim socket

  17. In northwestern supracondylar socket is characterized by
    • Narrow M-L
    • Narrow A-P
    • Narrow in A-P and wider M-L direction
    • Wider A-P and Wider M-L

  18. Indication of suprastyloid suspension socket is
    • Long transradial stump
    • Wrist disarticulation with prominent styloid
    • Midcarpal amputation
    • Metacarpophalangeal disarticulation

  19. Main feature of Three-quarter type below elbow socket
    • Indicated for short transradial amputation
    • Set in initial flexion
    • Narrow M-L
    • Has a Olecrenon cut off

  20. Screw in socket is indicated in
    • Wrist disarticulation
    • Long transradial amputation
    • Elbow disarticulation
    • Shoulder disarticulation

  21. Main principles of CRS socket
    • Longitudinal depressions added in the socket walls
    • Open release areas are created between the depressions that receive the displaced tissue
    • Requires selective pressure
    • All of these

  22. Which type of following socket is not a shoulder disarticulation socket?
    • AHI socket
    • Infraclavicular socket
    • X-frame socket
    • Perimeter frame type socket

  23. Acronym of ACCI is
    • Anatomically Contoured and Comfort Interface
    • Anatomically Contoured and Controlled Interface
    • Angulation Contoured and Controlled Interface
    • None of these

  24. Spilt socket is indicated for
    • Amputations immediately distal to the elbow joint
    • Inadequate strength of elbow flexors
    • Inability to tolerate the high unit pressure on the volar surface of the forearm
    • All of these

  25. TRAC interface incorporates design elements from
    • Split socket and three quarter type socket
    • Split socket and supracondylar socket
    • Muenster socket and northwestern socket
    • Muenster and suprastyloid socket

  26. Carlyle index is
    • Ratio of total height to stump length
    • Ratio of total height to normal side length of corresponding stump length
    • Ratio of stump length to total height
    • Ratio of stump length to normal side length of corresponding stump length

  27. Flexible hinges is indicated for
    • Amputation through the proximal third of the forearm
    • Amputation through the distal third of the forearm
    • Amputation through the middle third of the forearm
    • Amputation through mid of the forearm

  28. Operating lever thumb is present in ulnar side is present in which terminal device?
    • Dorrance hook
    • Sierra hook
    • APRL hook
    • Ottobock hook

  29. Step up hinges amplify the excursion of anatomic elbow joint by a ratio of
    • 3 : 2
    • 3 : 1
    • 1 : 1
    • 2 : 1

  30. Campbell index is
    • Ratio of humeral length to stump antero-posterior diameter
    • Ratio of radius length to stump antero-posterior diameter
    • Ratio of femur length to stump end circumference
    • Ratio of tibial length to stump end circumference

  31. Function of "Inverted Y strap" is to
    • Resist displacement of the socket on the residual limb when the prosthesis is subjected to heavy loading
    • Permit the use of scapular abduction and shoulder flexion on the amputated side for operation of the terminal device
    • Prevent to lateral rotation of prosthetic socket during prosthetic function
    • None of these

  32. Rotational wrist unit is prescribed mostly in
    • Bilateral upper-limb amputee who must perform all daily functions with prostheses
    • Bilateral upper limb amputees who needed to change different types of terminal devices
    • Amputees who engage in work or avocational activities that exert high rotational loads on the terminal device
    • Unilateral amputees who need to change terminal device for vocational activities

  33. How many wrist flexions are available in Sierra Wrist Flexion Unit?
    • Two
    • Three
    • Four
    • Five

  34. Outside locking hinges are indicated in
    • Short transradial levels of amputation
    • Amputations immediately distal to the elbow joint
    • Elbow disarticulation and transcondylar levels of amputation
    • Amputees with very high transradial levels of amputation

  35. Which Body motion is required to control a terminal device of upper limb prosthesis?
    • Biscapular adduction
    • Glenohumeral extension
    • Glenohumeral elevation
    • Glenohumeral flexion

  36. In standard harness system for transhumeral prosthesis what motion is required for elbow locking and unlocking?
    • Slight extension and abduction of the glenohumeral joint combined with equally slight shoulder depression on the amputated side
    • Slight flexion and adduction of the glenohumeral joint combined with equally slight shoulder depression on the amputated side
    • Slight extension and abduction of the glenohumeral joint combined with equally slight shoulder elevation on the non-amputated side
    • slight flexion and abduction of the glenohumeral joint combined with equally slight shoulder depression on the non-amputated side

  37.         What is primary control motion for cycling the elbow unit in shoulder disarticulation prosthesis by chest strap harness system?
    • Glenohumeral flexion
    • Biscapular abduction
    • Scapular adduction on the amputated side
    • Scapular abduction on the amputated side

  38. Bowden control cable system is used with
    • Transradial prosthesis
    • Elbow disarticulation prosthesis
    • Transhumeral prosthesis
    • Shoulder disarticulation prosthesis

  39. What is the function of muscle signal in myoelectric control prosthesis?
    • Provide power to the motor
    • Controlling the prosthesis
    • Controlling the voltage and current of motor
    • All of these

  40. Which is not a component of Targeted Muscle Re-innervation?
    • A spare muscle (the target muscle) of an amputated patient is denervated and then reinnervated with residual nerves of the amputated limb
    • The resultant EMG signals of the targeted muscle represent the motor commands to the missing limb
    • EMG signal used to drive the motor
    • EMG signal used to control a motorized prosthetic device

  41. Knee drop lock joint is most suitable to control
    • Medial lateral instability
    • Anterior posterior instability
    • Weakness of Harmstrings
    • Weakness of Quadriceps

  42. Charcot rehabilitation orthotic walker fabrication required in
    • CP
    • Polio
    • Diabetics
    • Rheumatoid

  43. Placement of orthotic ankle joint in saggital plane is at
    • Distal tip of the medial malloeus
    • Distal tip of the lateral malleous
    • Mid of the medial malleuos
    • 1/3 distal to the medial malloeus

  44. Which option is not suitable for management of flaccid equinus?
    • Spring Wire AFO for Dorsiflexion Assist
    • Klenzak AFO for Dorsiflexion Assist
    • Functional Electrical Stimulation for Dorsiflexion Assist
    • Free motion ankle joint for Dorsiflexion Assist

  45. The patient with plantarflexors weakness can be prescribed with following type of orthosis
    • Foot drop stop
    • Reverse foot drop stop
    • Inside T bar
    • Outside T bar

  46. The patient with pes plano valgus deformity may be provided with
    • Inside T strap with outside T strap
    • Inside bar with outside T strap
    • Inside T strap with outside bar
    • Inside bar with outside bar

  47. Which orthosis is least effective shoe for metatarsus adductus?
    • Corrective shoes
    • Tarsal pronator shoes
    • Bebax shoe
    • Straight last shoe

  48. For calcaneal spur, what kind of shoe should be provided?
    • High quarter shoe
    • Metatarsal pad or bars
    • Heel cushion with microcellular rubber sole
    • High heels

  49. What type of shoe modification is required in pes varus?
    • Thomas heel
    • Lateral wedge
    • Heel cushion
    • MT bar

  50. The bending of spreader bar in DB splint is to control
    • Equinus
    • Rotation
    • Varus
    • Cavus

  51. Which of the following shoe modification is not effective in Flat feet?
    • Lateral heel wedge
    • Medial heel wedge
    • Arch support
    • Thomas heel

  52. Purpose of double rocker sole is
    • To eliminate weight-bearing forces on the forefoot
    • To reduce pressure under the metatarsal heads
    • To unload the midfoot area
    • To relieve forefoot pressure by shifting the weight-bearing forces to the hindfoot and midfoot

  53. Which of the following modification don't influence in tone reducing AFO?
    • Posterior heel pad
    • Metatarsal pad
    • Toe hyperextension pad
    • Toe separator pad

  54. To correct genu recurvatum what kind of strap is given at the knee?
    • Loose anterior strap
    • Tight posterior strap
    • Tight anterior strap
    • Loose posterior strap

  55. Anterior cruciate ligament can be best treated by
    • Lenox Hill Derotation knee brace
    • Rehabilitation knee orthoses
    • Swedish knee cage
    • Knee sleeves

  56. Which is not indication of KAFO in paraplegia?
    • Quadriceps strength less than "Fair+" on manual muscle testing
    • Impaired or absent knee proprioception
    • Severe hyperextension thrust during stance
    • Moderate to severe plantarflexion spasticity

  57. Which is of the following type of Orthosis is suitable in unilateral LCPD?
    • Toronto Orthosis
    • Newington Orthosis
    • Scottish Rite Orthosis
    • Hip Abduction Orthosis

  58. The measurement for the Silesian bandage in weight relieving orthotics is taken from
    • The greater trochanter, over the opposite iliac crest, to the midline anteriorly
    • The scrapes Triangle, over the opposite iliac crest, to the midline anteriorly
    • The greater trochanter, over the same side iliac crest, to the midline posteriorly
    • The scrapes Triangle, over the same side iliac crest, to the midline posteriorly

  59. Craig splint is used in
    • CTEV
    • CDH
    • DDH
    • Perthe's Disease

  60. Phocomelia is
    • Defects in long bones
    • Complete absence of long bones
    • Partial absence of long bones
    • Complete absence extremity

  61. UMN disorders found in
    • PPRP
    • Muscular Dystrophy
    • Paraplegia at the level of 12
    • CP

  62. Chairback lumbo sacral orthosis my be provided to control
    • Coronal plane motion
    • Saggital plane motion
    • Transverse plane motion
    • All these

  63. Which spinal segment has the greatest range of motion?
    • Cervical
    • Thoracic
    • Lumbar
    • Sacral

  64. What type of cervical brace used to control 40 to 50% of flexion-extension?
    • Soft collar
    • Hallo Cervical Orthosis
    • SOMI
    • Philadelphia collar

  65. Which motion does Williams Lumbsacral orthosis control?
    • Flexion
    • Extension
    • Rotation
    • Restricts all motion

  66. Which of the following Thoracic lumbo-sacral orthoses control flexion?
    • Taylor
    • Knight Taylor
    • Jewett
    • Cow horn

  67. Which lumbar segment is the most mobile?
    • L4-L5
    • L2-L3
    • L3-L4
    • L1-L2

  68. Which of the following cervical orthosis does not limit rotation?
    • Halo vest
    • Minerva brace
    • Aspen collar
    • Sterno-Occipital-Mandibular Immobilizer (SOMI)

  69. A patient has a stable C4 fracture. Which cervical orthosis would be appropriate?
    • Soft collar
    • Philadelphia collar
    • Halovest
    • Minerva

  70. Which of these back braces is primarily used for stable vertebral anterior compression fractures?
    • Williams brace
    • Chairback brace
    • Taylor brace
    • Knight brace

  71. The most common deformity seen in patient with a osteoporotic spine is
    • Scoliosis
    • Kyphosis
    • Lordosis
    • Scoliokyphosis

  72. Complications associated with use of Halo Apparatus
    • Abscess of brain
    • Vascular compression of duodenum
    • Dysphagia
    • All of these

  73. Which is not Prognostic tool for curve progression?
    • Peak growth age
    • Degree of maturity
    • Peak height velocity
    • Chronological age

  74. Reliable indicators for differentiating resolving from progressive scoliosis :
    • Rib Vertebral Angle Difference (RVAD)
    • Cobb angle
    • Risser sign
    • Menarchal status

  75. The proximal rows of carpal bones are
    • Trapezium, trapezoid, capitate and hamate
    • Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum and pisiform
    • Scaphoid, lunate, trapezium, trapezoid
    • Scaphoid, lunate, capitate and hamate

  76. The primary indication for Thumb CMC palmar abduction mobilization splint is to
    • Prevent flexion contracture
    • Assist Extension
    • Prevent web space contracture
    • Maintain Abduction

  77. The splint used in Deupuytren Contracture
    • Short opponens splint
    • Long opponens splint
    • MCP, PIP Flexion
    • MCP, PIP Extension

  78. Trigger finger occurs in
    • Trauma
    • Rheumatoid Arthritis
    • Paralysis
    • Osteoarthritis

  79. Orthotic treatment of Tennis Elbow is
    • Elbow cage
    • Elbow strap to relax muscles over medial epicondyle
    • Elbow strap to relax muscles over lateral epicondyles
    • Elbow strap to relax muscles over olecranon process

  80. Which of the following motion get restricted in injury of supraspinatus?
    • Abduction
    • Flexion
    • Extension
    • Adduction

  81. The Chief Minister who inaugurated the Hindon Elevated Road, the longest elevated road of India was
    • Pinarayi Vijayan
    • Mamtha Banerji
    • Yogi Adityanath
    • Aravind Kejrival

  82. Write the abbreviated form of SAI.
    • Sports Affairs of India
    • Sports Authority of India
    • Sports Advisory of India
    • Sports Affinity of India

  83. Which of the following mountain ranges form a dividing line between the Ganges Plain and the Deccan Plateau?
    • Aravalli
    • Satpura
    • Western Ghats
    • Vindhyas

  84. The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric project, completed with the help of Japan, is on the river
    • Godavari
    • Ganga
    • Cauvery
    • Narmada

  85. How many agreements are signed between India and Uganda?
    • 7
    • 6
    • 5
    • 4

  86. Who is known as the father of Kerala Renaissance?
    • Chattampi Swamikal
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Sivananda Yogi
    • Kumaran Asan

  87. Who introduced PIDIYARI SYSTEM in Kerala?
    • Kuriakose Elias Chavara
    • Sister Alphonsa
    • Mother Therasa
    • St. Thomas

  88. Which Indian personality has won the 2018 International Contributions Award given by the Association for Educational Communications and Technology (AECT), USA?
    • K Anvar Sadath
    • Kapil Bansal
    • Harish Bhatt
    • P S Mohan

  89. Which of the following is the official mascot for the 2020 Tokyo Paralympic Games?
    • Keito
    • Someit
    • Zabivaka
    • Miraitowa

  90. Which social reformer of Kerala is credited with linking caste and religious reformation with that of nationalist movement?
    • Ayyankali
    • Pandit Karuppan
    • Vagbhatananda
    • Vakkom Maulavi

  91. Which movie has been chosen for the best film award "Palme d'Or" at the 2018 Cannes Film Festival?
    • Anone
    • Warotenka
    • Half Blue
    • Shoplifters

  92. Which is the largest river basin in India?
    • Godavari
    • Krishna
    • Ganga
    • Indus

  93. Which is the highest mountain peak in India?
    • Nanda Devi
    • Kamet
    • Trisul
    • Kangchenjunga

  94. First Malayalam dictionary was compiled by
    • Mahakavi Vallathol Narayana Menon
    • Sreekandeswaram Padmanabha Pillai
    • Herman Gundert
    • Mahakavi Ullor

  95. Who undertook a studentship in poetry under Manamboor Govindan Asan?
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Chattampi Swamikal
    • Thycaud Ayya
    • Kumaranasan

  96. The First Chief Justice of Kerala High Court
    • M S Menon
    • P Govindan Nair
    • K T Koshy
    • K Sankaran

  97. The Jallian Wala Bhagh Massacre took place in the year
    • 1919
    • 1819
    • 1918
    • 1719

  98. Who among the following was the first non-congress Chief Minister of India?
    • Shanker Dayal Sharma
    • E M S Namboothiripad
    • N G Ranga
    • Indulal Yagnik

  99. The Maharaja of Travancore who invited Thycaud Ayya to his palace and became his disciple
    • Swati Tirunal
    • Chithira Thirunal
    • Marthanda Varma
    • Dharma Raja

  100. Which of the following Monsoons account for most of the rainfall in India?
    • North East Monsoon
    • South East Monsoon
    • East Asia Monsoon
    • South West Monsoon

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