Assistant Professor in Oral Medicine and Radiology 30/2018 Answer Key

check list

Post: Assistant Professor in Oral Medicine and Radiology
Department: Kerala Medical Education Services
Category Code: 30/18
Qualification: Post Graduate Degree (MDS) in Oral Medicine & Radiology
Date of Test: 05-12-2018


If you find mistakes, comment below



  1. Inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of which nerve?
    • Mandibular nerve
    • Maxillary nerve
    • Ophthalmic nerve
    • Infra orbital nerve

  2. Which bone does not take part in the formation of nasal septum?
    • Ethmoid bone
    • Nasal bone
    • Sphenoid bone
    • Lacrimal bone

  3. Transverse facial artery is a branch of
    • Superficial peroneal artery
    • Facial artery
    • Superficial temporal artery
    • External carotid artery

  4. Name the nucleus lodged beneath the facial colliculus.
    • Vestibular Nucleus
    • Facial Nucleus
    • Hypoglossal Nucleus
    • Abducent Nucleus

  5. External Jugular vein drains into which of the following vein?
    • Facial vein
    • Brachiocephalic vein
    • Subclavian
    • Internal Jugular vein

  6. Name the calmodulin - dependant kinase which phosphorelates myosin to bring about the contraction of smooth muscle?
    • Calcineurin
    • Calbindin
    • Myosin light chain kinase
    • Protein kinase C

  7. One of the following is a ligant gated channel.
    • Aquaporins
    • Acetyl choline receptor
    • Sodium channel
    • Potassium channel

  8. Connexons at gap junctions are channels made up of protein connexins which permit substances to pass
    • Between cells
    • From ECF to ICF
    • Through water channels
    • From cytoplasm to ECF

  9. The resting membrane potential of a nerve axon is
    • + 70 mv
    • - 90 mv
    • - 70 mv
    • - 60 mv

  10. The Na+ and K+ transport takes places through ___________ in the Na+ K+ AT Pase anchored in the cytoskeleton.
    • Antiport
    • Beta subunit
    • Epithelial Na+ channel
    • Alpha subunit

  11. Which is true regarding apotosis?
    • Occurs in normal as well as diseased organs
    • Involves enzymatic digestion and protein denaturation
    • Initiated by tissue ischemia
    • Is associated with inflammation

  12. Which of the following is not an inhibitor of coagulation?
    • Protein C
    • Protein S
    • F IX
    • Antithrombin C

  13. Special stain used for demonstration of Amyloid
    • Von kossa
    • Reticulin
    • Congo Red
    • Giemsa

  14. An example of type IV hyper sensitivity reaction
    • Anaphylaxis
    • Tuberculin reaction
    • Arthus reaction
    • Acute serum sickness

  15. Tumor with parenchymal cells representing more than one germ cell layer is called
    • Hamartoma
    • Choristoma
    • Adenoma
    • Teratoma

  16. Zero order kinetics shown by
    • Carbamazepine
    • Metoprolol
    • Phenytoin
    • Metoclopramide

  17. Which of the following drug is an inhibitor of cytochrome P450 enzymes?
    • Ketoconazole
    • Rifampicin
    • Phenytoin
    • Phenobarbitone

  18. Which of the following drug is a prodrug?
    • Levodopa
    • Lignocaine
    • Salbutamol
    • Imimpramine

  19. Example for a drug producing Tachyphylaxis
    • Sertraline
    • Ephedrine
    • Amlodipine
    • Clozapine

  20. Chloramphenicol produces aplastic anaemia which is not related to dose; is an example for
    • Drug allergy
    • Intolerance
    • Hypersensitivity
    • Idiosyncrasy

  21. Normal serum bilirubin level is
    • 1-2 mg%
    • 0.1-0.7 mg%
    • 0.2-0.8 mg%
    • 0.4-1.2 mg%

  22. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
    • Methionine
    • Cysteine
    • Tyrosine
    • Aspartic acid

  23. Which of the following vitamin has antioxidant property?
    • Vitamin D
    • Vitamin K
    • Vitamin E
    • Niacin

  24. Rotheras test is done to detect the presence of which compound is urine?
    • Glucose
    • Ketone bodies
    • Fructose
    • Uric acid

  25. Phenylketonuria is due to the deficiency of which enzyme?
    • Aldolase
    • Transaminase
    • Tyrosinase
    • Phenylalanine hydroxylase

  26. Which of the following are sterilized in an autoclave?
    • Surgical instruments
    • Dressings
    • Culture media
    • All of these

  27. Vincent's angina is caused by
    • Streptococcus pyogenes
    • Leptotrichia buccalis
    • Treponema pallidum
    • Neisseria gonorrhoeae

  28. Contact dermatitis is an example of
    • Type I hypersensitivity
    • Type II hypersensitivity
    • Type III hypersensitivity
    • Type IV hypersensitivity

  29. Which of the following is a non suppurative complication of Streptococcus pyogenes?
    • Quinsy
    • Otitis media
    • Ludwig's angina
    • Acute glomerulonephritis

  30. All of the following regarding candida infection is true except
    • Shows true hyphae on examination with potassium hydroxide
    • Predisposing factors include diabetes mellitus, use of broad spectrum antibiotics
    • Germ tube test is positive for Candida albicans
    • Amphotericin B is used in disseminated candidosis

  31. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
    • Sound coalescence of development lobes results in grooves and faulty coalescence results in fissures
    • The dentino enamel junction is a hypomineralized zone of about 10 μm thick
    • Enamel spindles are odontoblastic processes which cross the DEJ into enamel
    • Gnarled enamel is not subject to cleavage as is regular enamel

  32. The average diameter of dentinal tubules at DEJ
    • 0.5 to 0.9 μm
    • 2 to 3 μm
    • 10 to 14 μm
    • 0.005 to 0.01 μm

  33. Which of the following statement is correct?
    • Dentin is less mineralised than cementum or bone
    • Hardness of dentin near pulp is about three times greater than near DEJ
    • Tertiary dentin is formed by tertiary odontoblasts
    • Tensile strength of dentin is 40 MPa
    Question Error

  34. The average pulp space volume in permanent adult human teeth is
    • 0.024 ml
    • 1.2 ml
    • 0.0012 ml
    • 2.4 ml

  35. Reparative dentin formation rate
    • 4 to 8 μm/day
    • 1.5 μm/day
    • 0.05 μm/day
    • 0.4 μm/day

  36. Porosity of silica containing investments is more in all of the following conditions except
    • Heterogeneous size and shape of refractory silica particles
    • Greater refractory silica percentage in the investment
    • Higher water : powder ratio of the original investment mix
    • Greater mold wall thickness

  37. The thickness of gold foil is
    • 0.01 to 0.07 mm
    • 0.001 to 0.007 mm
    • 1 to 4 mm
    • 5 to 75 μm

  38. Which of the following is not true regarding retention of posts?
    • Threaded posts are 6 to 8 times more retentive than smooth posts
    • Parallel sided posts are 2-3 times more retentive than tapered ones
    • Diameter of posts between 0.06 to 0.65" drastically increases retention
    • Greater the ratio between crown and root portion, the greater will be the retention

  39. Statements regarding creep in dental amalgam are all true except
    • Increase with mercury excess
    • Less the creep, better marginal integrity
    • Can occur at mouth temperature
    • Pronounced below equicohesive temperature

  40. Generalizations regarding organisms isolated from root canal are all of the following except
    • Mixed infections are more common than single organism isolates
    • Pulpal isolates are similar to oral flora, with gram positive cocci predominating
    • Organisms associated with flare ups differ from asymptomatic canal isolates
    • Approximately 25% of isolated orgranisms are anaerobes

  41. Only ectodermal component of tooth germ.
    • Dental follicle
    • Dental papilla
    • Dental sac
    • Enamel organ

  42. Formalin is a
    • Fixative
    • Stain
    • Antiseptic
    • Irrigant

  43. The physiologic wearing away of enamel is
    • Abrasion
    • Erosion
    • Attrition
    • Dental caries

  44. Actinomycosis is a
    • Fungal infection
    • Bacterial infection
    • Viral infection
    • Parasitic infection

  45. Stafne cyst is
    • Developmental anomaly
    • Inflammatory cyst
    • Retension cyst
    • Extravasation cyst

  46. Speech problem most commonly associated with irregular maxillary incisors are the difficulty in pronouncing
    • /f/, /v/
    • /t/, /d/
    • /s/, /z/
    • th, sh

  47. Condition termed X-occlusion is commonly associated with
    • Angles class II div I malocclusion
    • Class III in south pacific islanders
    • Skeletal class II malocclusion
    • Buccal crossbites in Australian aborigines

  48. Term Duchenne smile refers to
    • Enjoyment smile
    • Social smile
    • Posed smile
    • Static smile

  49. Philosophy of fixed appliance ideally indicated for patients with moderate to severe periodontal problem is
    • Multi-banded therapy
    • Pre adjusted edgewise with elastomeric rings
    • Self ligating systems
    • Lingula orthodontic appliances

  50. Surgical procedure that can be performed very early in life with larger range of movement is
    • Orthognathic surgery
    • Distraction osteogenesis
    • Bioprogressive therapy
    • Wilkodontics

  51. Which of the following methods of pulp vitality is an objective test
    • Electric pulp test
    • Heat test
    • Cold test
    • Pulse oximetry

  52. Making the child observe when dentist works on a cooperative child is
    • Modeling
    • Reinforcement
    • Aversive conditioning
    • HOME

  53. Radiograph of the cervical vertebrae can be used to assess
    • Sexual age
    • Skeletal age
    • Chronological age
    • Mental age

  54. Critical pH of saliva at which the hydroxyapatite of enamel starts to get dissolved is
    • 6
    • 6.5
    • 5.5
    • 4

  55. Twin block appliance is used primarily in the treatment of
    • Mandibular deficiency
    • Mandibular excess
    • Maxillary deficiency
    • Maxillary excess

  56. Topical antifungal agent used in Oral Candidiasis
    • Acyclovir
    • Clotrimazole
    • Nevirapine
    • Ketoconazole

  57. Natal teeth associated with
    • Clouston syndrome
    • Goltz-Gorlin syndrome
    • Ellis-van Creveld syndrome
    • Gorlin-Goltz syndrome

  58. Mulitple separate radiolucencies of jaws seen in the radiographic appearance
    • Cemetoblastoma
    • Fibrous Dysplasia
    • Osteitis Deformans
    • Multiple Myeloma

  59. X-rays were discovered by Roentgen in
    • 8th November 1895
    • 8th November 1896
    • 8th November 1897
    • 8th November 1898

  60. S.I. unit of dose equivalent
    • Rad
    • Sievert
    • Rem
    • Gray

  61. All are ethical principles except
    • Beneficance
    • Veracity
    • Bogus diploma
    • Non maleficience

  62. Consumer Protection Act came into force on
    • 14th April 1986
    • 14th May 1948
    • 15th April 1987
    • 15th May 1949

  63. Snowball sample is an example for which sampling method?
    • Quota sampling
    • Purposive sampling
    • Convenience sampling
    • Systematic sampling

  64. Predominent immunoglobulin in saliva
    • IG A
    • IG M
    • IG D
    • IG G

  65. Safety tolerated dose of fluoride
    • 8-16 mg/kg
    • 8-16 gm/kg
    • 32-64 mg/kg
    • 32-64 gm/kg

  66. Principal cell type in gingival epithelium is
    • Fibroblast
    • Melanocyte
    • Keratinocyte
    • Merkel cell

  67. Which among the following is not a reconstructive periodontal surgical procedure?
    • Guided Tissue Regeneration
    • Placement of Alloplast bone substitute
    • LANAP
    • Osteoplasty

  68. Ostell device is used to assess
    • Tooth mobility
    • Bony pattern at implant surgical site
    • Mobility of implants
    • Periodontal Disease activity

  69. Which among the following bacteria form star shaped colonies?
    • P Gingivalis
    • Aggrigatibactor actinomycetum comitans
    • T Denticola
    • Actinomyces Viscosus

  70. Periostat is
    • 20 mg Tetracycline
    • 20 mg Doxycycline
    • 25 mg minocycline
    • 25 mg metronidazole

  71. Direction of application of first force in dental extraction using forceps is
    • Buccal
    • Lingual
    • Apical
    • Rotational

  72. Which of the following muscles has dual innervations?
    • Masseter
    • Myolohyoid
    • Omohyoid
    • Digastric

  73. 2% local anesthetic solution is
    • 0.2 mg/ml
    • 2 mg/ml
    • 20 mg/ml
    • 200 mg/ml

  74. Which of the clotting factors is not dependent on Vitamin K for synthesis?
    • Factor II
    • Factor V
    • Factor VII
    • Factor IX

  75. Most common site of mandibular fracture is
    • Condylar process
    • Coronoid process
    • Symphysis
    • Parasymphysis

  76. 'Combination Syndrome' coined by
    • Heartwell
    • Misch
    • Kelly
    • Stewart

  77. Choice of finish line for PJC
    • Feather edge
    • Shoulder
    • Chanfer
    • Bevel

  78. Instrument for post space creation
    • Peeso reamer
    • Excavator
    • Spatula
    • File

  79. Componer is
    • Polyacid modified composite rein
    • GIC
    • Gutta percha
    • Impression compound

  80. Density of poly (methyl methacry late)
    • 1.19 g/cm3
    • 1.25 g/cm3
    • 2.2 g/cm3
    • 3.2 g/cm3

  81. The study of structure of atmosphere and elements of weather and climates and climatic types and regions are called
    • Climatology
    • Hydrology
    • Geomorphology
    • Soil geography

  82. 'Ezhuthachan Puraskaram' is the highest literary award of which state?
    • Andhra Pradesh
    • Tamilnadu
    • Kerala
    • Karnataka

  83. The golden ball award is given to which player in the FIFA World Cup 2018?
    • Ronaldo
    • Lionel Messi
    • Embappe
    • Luka Modric

  84. Which one of the following features can be termed as 'Physical Feature'?
    • Port
    • Road
    • Plain
    • Water park

  85. Who was popularly known as "Frontier Gandhi"?
    • Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
    • Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
    • Mahatma Gandhi
    • Hasrat Mohani

  86. Who was known as Jhansi Rani of Travancore?
    • Accamma Cheriyan
    • Anna Chandi
    • K. R. Gowriyamma
    • Fathima Beevi

  87. Which one of the following is the most important constituent of the atmosphere for human beings?
    • Water vapour
    • Dust particle
    • Nitrogen
    • Oxygen

  88. Who was the first Indian leader elected to the Communist International?
    • Jawaharlal Nehru
    • Sardar Vallabhai Patel
    • P. C. Joshy
    • M. N. Roy

  89. Who is the latest Dada Saheb Phalke award winner?
    • Amitab Bachan
    • Adoor Gopalakrishnan
    • Vinod Khanna
    • Jayaraj

  90. The air that contains moisture to its full capacity
    • Relative humidity
    • Specific humidity
    • Absolute humidity
    • Saturated air

  91. Who is the first Indian women to win gold medal in world junior athletics?
    • P. T. Usha
    • Hima Das
    • M. D. Valsamma
    • Marycom

  92. In which river Sabarigiri Hydroelectric Project located?
    • Periyar
    • Neyyar
    • Pamba
    • Bhavani

  93. The session in which Mahatma Gandhi was elected as the President of Indian National Congress?
    • Bombay
    • Calcutta
    • Karachi
    • Belgaum

  94. The year in which Partition of Bengal was cancelled by the British?
    • 1911
    • 1905
    • 1909
    • 1907

  95. Who was the first Education Minister of Kerala?
    • V. R. Krishnayyar
    • Joseph Mundassery
    • C. Kesavan
    • Sankara Narayanan

  96. The southern most fresh water lagoon in Kerala
    • Akkulam
    • Veli
    • Vellayani
    • Vembanad

  97. Who was the founder of Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangham (SJPS)?
    • Pandit Karuppan
    • Ayyankali
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Subbarayan

  98. The spiritual leader of Kerala who explained the meaning of 'Chinmudra' to Swami Vivekananda?
    • Bodheswara
    • Vaikunda Swamikal
    • Vaghbhatananda
    • Chattambi Swamikal

  99. Kuriakose Elias Chavara was born at
    • Mannanam
    • Kainakary
    • Kollam
    • Pallippuram

  100. The movement started at Cherai was known as
    • Sahodara Sangham
    • Kallumala Samara
    • Malayali Memmorial
    • Ezhava Memmorial

%

Post a Comment

0 Comments