Clinical Audiometrician Medical Education 256/2013 Answer Key

audio ear

Post: Clinical Audiometrician
Department: Medical Education
Category Code: 256/13
Qualification: Plus Two + Diploma in Hearing Language & Speech; BASLP with 1 Year experience as Audiometrician
Date of Test: 05-02-2019


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  1. Eustachian tube helps in maintaining the _______ ear pressure equal to atmospheric pressure.
    • External Ear
    • Middle Ear
    • Inner Ear
    • Auditory Nerve

  2. Sensorineural hearing loss is caused by the damage to _________ Ear.
    • Middle Ear
    • Inner Ear
    • External Ear
    • Auditory Cortex

  3. Auditory Training method given by Carhart consists of _______ Stages.
    • 3
    • 6
    • 2
    • 4

  4. Full Form of OAE is
    • Oto Analysis Emission
    • Oral Acoustic Exam
    • Oto Acoustic Emission
    • Oral Arousal Emission

  5. Hair like projections on hair cells are known as
    • Spiral ganglion
    • Strial Cells
    • Stereocilia
    • Hair like projections

  6. In Sensorineural hearing loss the gap between Air Conduction and Bone Conduction thresholds is
    • More than 20dB
    • More than 10dB
    • Less than 10dB
    • Less than 5dB

  7. Microphone of a hearing aid picks up acoustic signal and converts them into __________ signals.
    • Electric
    • Electroacoustic
    • Acoustic
    • Radio

  8. Audible Frequency range in humans is
    • 20 Hz to 200 Hz
    • 200 Hz to 2000 Hz
    • 20 Hz to 20000 Hz
    • 2000 Hz to 20000 Hz

  9. The smallest bone in the human ear is
    • Incus
    • Stapes
    • Umbo
    • Malleus

  10. High Risk hearing loss is associated with which one of the following conditions
    • Consanguinity
    • Low birth weight
    • Jaundice
    • All of these

  11. Raising Shaped audiometric configuration is seen in
    • Presbycusis
    • Rubella
    • Otosclerosis
    • Meneire's Disease

  12. Prelingual hearing loss refers to the hearing loss which develops
    • After the language development
    • Before the language development
    • During the language development
    • All of these

  13. Ac unmasked threshold of left ear is marked on audiogram using __________ Symbol.
    • O
    • Triangle
    • X
    • Square

  14. ___________ test is done to know the functioning of Eustachian Tube.
    • Reflexometry
    • Audiometry
    • Tympanometry
    • None of these

  15. Psychological Attribute of Intensity is
    • Loudness
    • Pitch
    • Velocity
    • Quality

  16. The average intensity level of human conversation is around
    • 25 dB
    • 45 dB
    • 65 dB
    • 85 dB

  17. Inner hair cells in cochlea are placed in ___________ no. of rows.
    • 2
    • 1
    • 3
    • 4

  18. Pure Tone Average refers to the average of AC thresholds obtained at
    • 500, 1000 and 2000 Hz
    • 250, 500 and 1000 Hz
    • 750, 1500 and 3000 Hz
    • 500, 2000 and 4000 Hz

  19. White forelock is a characteristic of ____________ syndrome.
    • Waardenburg
    • Down
    • Usher's
    • Treacher

  20. 4 kHz notch is observed in audiogram of
    • Meniere's disease
    • Otosclerosis
    • NIHL
    • Presbycusis

  21. Which one of the following test is based on lateralization principle
    • Rinne
    • Weber
    • Schwabach
    • Bing

  22. In cochlear implantation ___________ are implanted in cochlea.
    • Electrodes
    • Hair Cells
    • Electrolytes
    • Ossicles

  23. Which one of the following is a test of speech audiometry?
    • SDS
    • Lombard test
    • Stenger
    • SISI

  24. Wax or Cerumen in ear canal results in ___________ type of hearing loss.
    • Sensory
    • Conductive
    • Central
    • Mixed

  25. Earmolds are useful in avoiding the _____________ feedback.
    • Visual
    • Acoustic
    • Bio
    • Electric

  26. Hearing loss without any organic problem in the ear is known as
    • Pseudohypocusis
    • Presbycusis
    • Prelingual hearing loss
    • Pseudohyperacusis 

  27. Bilateral hearing loss refers to
    • Hearing loss found in one ear
    • Hearing loss found in both ears
    • Absence of hearing loss in both ears
    • Essentially

  28. Percentage of hearing diability required for the procurement of hearing aids free of cost under ADIP s
    • 20%
    • 50%
    • 40%
    • 60%

  29. Absence of pinna is known as
    • Atresia
    • Microtia
    • Stenosis
    • Anotia

  30. Transducers used in cases of collapsing ear canals during air conduction testing are
    • Bone vibrator
    • Headphones
    • Insert earphones
    • All of these

  31. The deepest portion of the auricle is known as
    • Helix
    • Concha
    • Antihelix
    • Lobule

  32. Participation of non test ear in testing of test ear is removed using _________ procedure.
    • Masking
    • Cross hearing
    • Cross over
    • Interaural attenuation 

  33. Amplification device which uses magnetic signal to transmit the teacher speech to children?
    • FM hearing aids
    • Induction loop systems
    • Infra red systems
    • Hard wire system 

  34. Hearing aid comprises of
    • Microphone
    • Amplifier
    • Receiver
    • All of these

  35. __________ Type of tympanogram is commonly seen in sensorineural hearing loss.
    • C
    • Ad
    • As
    • A

  36. Goal of aural rehabilitation is to
    • Improve speech reading
    • Make Maximum use of residual hearing
    • Assess the degree of the hearing handicap
    • All of these

  37. The cranial nerve responsible for sound conduction
    • Facial nerve
    • Trigeminal nerve
    • Vestibular nerve
    • Auditory nerve

  38. Choose the appropriate treatment for sensorineural hearing loss
    • Hearing aids
    • Ear wax removal
    • Radiation therapy
    • Gluten free diet

  39. RCI full form
    • Rehabilitation Council of India
    • Receiver Canal Inserts
    • Revised Council of India
    • Rehabilitation Centre of India

  40. Which year the RPWD Act was enacted?
    • 2014
    • 2016
    • 2015
    • 2017

  41. ____________ is the structure of resonatory system.
    • Trachea
    • Vocal folds
    • Lips
    • Nose

  42. Structure that are involved in speech production are
    • Lungs
    • Larynx
    • Tongue
    • All of these

  43. ___________ is a complex 2 way and intentional process of passing the message.
    • Speech
    • Language
    • Communication
    • None of these

  44. ___________ system is used in speech sounds production such as consonants and vowels.
    • Respiratory
    • Phonatory
    • Resonatory
    • Articulatory

  45. Central Nervous System consists of
    • Brain
    • Spinal Cord
    • Both Brain and Spinal Cord
    • None of these

  46. Damage to _________area in the brain leads to problem in comprehension of speech.
    • Wernicke's area
    • Broca's area
    • Corpus Collusum
    • Striatum

  47. Inonation, rate, stress features belongs to _________ of speech.
    • Semantics
    • Syntax
    • Prosody
    • Morphology

  48. A person voice with diplophonia will have
    • Double pitch
    • Dipole pitch
    • Diluted pitch
    • Divergent pitch

  49. Pharynx is an important structure in determining __________ of speech.
    • Frequency
    • Intensity
    • Resonance
    • Nasality

  50. Speech sounds that are produced by closure or narrowing of the air passage so that air stream is block completely or partially in mouth or comes out with out audible noise
    • Vowels
    • Consonants
    • Both of Vowels and Consonants
    • None of these

  51. Place of articulation where the tongue tip is brought up to articulate with the flat part of alveolar
    • Labiodentals
    • Palatals
    • Alveolar
    • Velar

  52.  __________ is a bilabial plosive.
    • /t/
    • /d/
    • /g/
    • /p/

  53. __________ sounds are produced with an unobstructed open vocal tract.
    • Consonants
    • Vowels
    • Blends
    • Diphthongs

  54. Series of syllable production by a child refers to
    • Cooing
    • Babbling
    • Yelling
    • None of these

  55. Fast rate of speech is known as
    • Bluttering
    • Stuttering
    • Cluttering
    • Fluttering

  56. What are the factors that affect speech and language development in children with hearing loss?
    • Age of onset of HI
    • Type of hearing loss
    • Degree of HI
    • All these

  57. Breathiness is disorder of voice
    • Loudness
    • Quality
    • Pitch
    • Intensity

  58. Using hand shapes and positions very close to lips to communicate refers to
    • Hand speech
    • Communicating speech
    • Cued speech
    • Cooing speech

  59. Auditory Verbal Therapy mainly focuses on
    • Listening
    • Lisping
    • Reading
    • Writing

  60. Androphonia refers to
    • Male person speaking like a female
    • Male person speaking like a baby
    • Female person speaking like a male
    • Female person speaking like a baby 

  61. Intonation of speech refers to variations in __________ in connected speech as a function of time.
    • Pitch
    • Loudness
    • Quality
    • Shimmer

  62. Speech problems in HI includes
    • Disorders of pitch
    • Vowel production
    • Irregularities in rate of speech
    • All of these

  63. Fluency of speech refers to __________ production of speech.
    • Smooth
    • Shivering
    • Silent
    • Straight

  64. Replacing the target consonant /g/ by /k/ known as
    • distortion
    • addition
    • omission
    • substitution

  65. ___________ sounds are produced by bringing vocal folds together.
    • Glottal
    • Bilabial
    • Velar
    • Bilabial and Vela

  66. Manual communication means
    • Use of sign system
    • Using natural body movements
    • Finger spelling
    • All of these

  67. Word like utterances produced during language development.
    • Jargon
    • Echolalia
    • Protowords
    • Jargon and Echolalia

  68. SLI refers to
    • Speech and Language Impairment
    • Specific Language Impairment
    • Speech and Language Index
    • Specific Language Information 

  69. Phoneme is the _____________ unit of speech.
    • Basic
    • Broad
    • Blank
    • Bright

  70. ____________ is the study of use of the language.
    • Phonology
    • Morphology
    • Semantics
    • Pragmatics

  71. Ability to use language appropriately as per demand refers to
    • Duality
    • Performance
    • Code switching
    • Competence

  72. Hyponasality occurs as a result of
    • Adenoid tissue in nasopharynx
    • Velopharyngeal incompetence
    • Both of Adenoid tissue in nasopharynx and Velopharyngeal incompetence
    • Tonsilitis
    Question Error

  73. Vital capacity is the volume of air breathed out after the deepest
    • Inhalation
    • Exhalation
    • Vocalization
    • Breathing

  74. Consonants are classified based on
    • Place and height of tongue
    • Height of tongue and rounding of lips
    • Place and manner of articulation
    • Manner of articulation and rounding of lips 

  75. Nature of Language development in a mild mentally retarded will be
    • Delayed
    • Different
    • Deviant
    • Diverted

  76. Multiples of fundamental frequency are known as
    • Harmonics
    • Formants
    • Spectra
    • None of these

  77. Development of Reflexive vocalizations is marked at age
    • 2-3 years
    • 0-1 month
    • 4-6 months
    • 3-4 months

  78. Which of the following are voiceless stops?
    • S, Sh, h
    • m, n, j
    • b, d, g
    • p, t, k

  79. Structure separating the oral and nasal cavities is
    • Alveolar ridge
    • Palate
    • Tongue
    • Mandible

  80. Which of the following is true about natural method of teaching language?
    • Child is taught language in a segmental manner
    • Child learns language without efforts
    • Development of language happens naturally
    • Both Child learns language without efforts and Development of language happens naturally

  81. Name the river that flows in between Vindhya- Satpura mountain ranges
    • Krishna
    • Godavari
    • Narmada
    • Tapti

  82. Lushai Hills can be seen in
    • Assam
    • Sikkim
    • Manipur
    • Mizoram

  83. Which Indian state has the second largest coastal line in the country?
    • Andhra Pradesh
    • Kerala
    • Maharashtra
    • Tamil Nadu

  84. Name the largest salt lake of India.
    • Chilika Lake
    • Sambhar Lake
    • Wular Lake
    • Pushkar Lake

  85. Who was the author of the book 'Planned Economy for India'?
    • Amartya Sen
    • Thomas Issac
    • Jawaharlal Nehru
    • M. Visveswarayya

  86. When was Kochi Mahajana Sabha founded?
    • 1899
    • 1918
    • 1919
    • 1893

  87. Name the lengthiest dam of Kerala.
    • Malampuzha dam
    • Idukki dam
    • Mullaperiyar dam
    • Peechi dam

  88. Who was the founder of Araya Vamsodharani Sabha?
    • Ayyankkali
    • Ayya Vaikundar
    • Pandit Karuppan
    • T.K. Madhavan

  89. Who was the author of the book 'Brahmashri Sree Narayana Guru'?
    • Kumaranasan
    • Vallathol Narayana Menon
    • Dr. Palpu
    • T. Bhaskaran

  90. Which Indian leader is popularly known as Deshbandhu?
    • Subash Chandra Bose
    • Chittaranjan Das
    • W.C. Banerjee
    • Bipin Chandra Pal

  91. The Muslim League observed Direct Action Day on
    • August 16, 1946
    • December 20, 1946
    • June 25, 1946
    • May 18, 1946

  92. Name the revolutionary leader involved in the assassination of British Officer W.C. Rand.
    • Lala Hardayal
    • Bhagat Singh
    • Damodar Hari Chapekar
    • Pulin Das

  93. Who was the leader of Bardoli Satyagraha?
    • Annie Besant
    • M.A. Ansari
    • Lalalajpat Rai
    • Sardar Vallabhai Patel

  94. Which Five Year Plan was terminated one year before its completion?
    • Second Five Year Plan
    • Fifth Five Year Plan
    • Fourth Five Year Plan
    • First Five Year Plan

  95. Name the player who won the Golden Ball Award in 2018 FIFA World Cup.
    • Gareth Bale
    • Serigo Ramos
    • Luka Modric
    • Cristiano Ronaldo

  96. Who won the Nobel Peace Prize of 2018?
    • Nadia Murad
    • Jan Egeland
    • Angela Merkel
    • James P. Allison

  97. The Gangrel Dam is built across the river.
    • Yamuna
    • Vaiga
    • Mahanadi
    • Sutlej

  98. Name the social reformer who founded an educational institution named 'Thattvaprakashika'.
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Vaghbatananda
    • Ayyankali
    • Pandit Karuppan

  99. Twenty first Commonwealth Games took place in the city of
    • Washington
    • Moscow
    • Gold Coast
    • Beijing

  100. From the following find out the product that has been selected as a geographical indicator.
    • Calicut Halwa
    • Aranmula Kannadi
    • Ramasserry Iddli
    • Palakkadan Silk

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