Assistant professor in Microbiology 31/2018, 32/2018, 148/2018 Answer Key

Post: Assistant professor in Microbiology
Department: Medical Education
Category Code: 31/2018, 32/2018, 148/2018
Qualification: MD (Microbiology)/ MD (Bacteriology)/ DNB (Microbiology/ Bacteriology)
Date of Test: 20-03-2019


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1. Decreasing order of ability of antibodies to fix complement is
   • IgM > IgG3 > IgG1 > IgG2
   • IgG1 > IgG2 > IgM > IgG3
   • IgG1 > IgM > IgG2 > IgG3
   • IgG3 > IgG2 > IgG1 > IgM
   
   
2. The test used for screening pregnant women for antibodies that may cause haemolytic disease of new born is
   • Neutralisation test
   • Direct coombs test
   • Indirect coombs test
   • Immunohistochemistry
   
   
3. All are true about Type IV hypersensitivity except
   • Delayed type of hypersensitivity
   • Immune mechanism against intracellular microorganisms
   • T_DTH cells are the principal mediators
   • Radio-immunosorbent test for serum IgE helps in diagnosis
   
   
4. Elek's gel precipitation test is an example of
   • Oudine procedure
   • Ouchterlony procedure
   • Oakley-Fulthrop procedure
   • Rocket electrophoresis
   
   
5. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency leads to
   • Recurrent pyogenic infections
   • Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
   • Collagen vascular diseases
   • Heriditary angioneurotic oedema
   
   
6. Type II hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by
   • IgG
   • Antigen-antibody complex
   • IgA
   • IgE
   
   
7. Which of the following is an antibody dependent pathway?
   • Classical pathway
   • Alternate pathway
   • Lectin pathway
   • None of these 
   
   
8. Most common bacteria causing neonatal meningitis is
   • Streptococcus pneumonia
   • Haemophilus influenza
   • Neisseria meningitidis
   • Escherichia coli
   
   
9. AIIR is needed in
   • Droplet precautions
   • Airborne precautions
   • Contact precautions
   • None of these
   
   
10. According to Biomedical waste management 2018, metallic body implants should be segregated in
    • White container (puncture proof box)
    • Yellow bag with biohazard symbol
    • Blue container (puncture proof box)
    • Red bag with biohazard symbol
    
    
11. Bundle care approach for prevention of CAUTI is
    • Drainage bag must be always above the bladder level
    • Closed drainage system should be maintained
    • Silastic catheters is associated with increased chance of urethritis
    • Routine prophylactic antimicrobial therapy is advised
    
    
12. Bundle care of VAP includes all except
    • Elevation of head end of the bed to 30-45°
    • Change ventilator tubings frequently
    • Daily interruption of sedation
    • Prophylaxis for peptic ulcer disease
    
    
13. Lymphogranuloma Venereum is caused by
    • Haemophilus ducreyi
    • Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
    • Chlamydia trachomatis
    • Gardnerella vaginalis
    
    
14. All are true about Mucormycosis EXCEPT
    • Major risk factor is uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
    • Posaconazole is effective
    • Angioinvasive
    • Septate hyphae with branched sporangiophores, rhizoids absent
    
    
15. True about CBNAAT is
    • Detects INH resistance
    • Detection limit of 10⁴ bacilli/ml sputum
    • Detects mutations of the rpo B gene
    • Can further speciate MTB complex
    
    
16. Modified Faine's criteria is used for the diagnosis of
    • Rheumatic fever
    • Bacterial vaginosis
    • Systemic lupus erythematosis
    • Leptospirosis
    
    
17. Sorbitol Mac Conkey agar is used for laboratry diagnosis of
    • EHEC
    • ETEC
    • EPEC
    • EIEC
    
    
18. All are true about Gluteraldehyde as disinfectant except
    • Exposure monitoring not required
    • Bactericidal, Virucidal, Sporicidal
    • Alkaline solution is active
    • Not stains skin proteins
    
    
19. Flash sterilization is
    • Can be used as a routine substituite for autoclave
    • Holding period is 132° C at 27-28 lbs for 3-4 minutes
    • Can be used for wrapped items
    • All of these
    
    
20. Concentration of Orthophthaldehyde as chemical sterilant
    • 3%-6%
    • 2%
    • 0.55%
    • 10%
    
    
21. Sequence of removing Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
    • Gloves, Gown, Goggles, Mask
    • Glove, Mask, Goggles, Gown
    • Gloves, Goggles, Gown, Mask
    • Gown, Mask, Gloves, Goggles
    
    
22. Most sensitive indicator of carbapenemase production is non-susceptibility to
    • Meropenem
    • Doripenem
    • Imipenem
    • Ertapenem
    
    
23. Which is not a Back End Strategy of Antimicrobial Stewardship programme
    • Sustainable than Front end strategy
    • Prospective audit and feedback is an example
    • Formulary restriction
    • It is labour intensive than Front-end strategy
    
    
24. Types of EQA methods include
    • Proficiency testing
    • Rechecking or Retesting
    • On-site evaluation
    • All of these
    
    
25. True about TSI agar is
    • Ratio of sucrose to glucose is 1:10
    • It can be used only when testing a bacterial species selected from a single colony recovered on primary or selective agar plates
    • It is better than KIA for screening stool specimens for Yersinia enterocolitica
    • It is more sensitive in the detection of hydrogen sulphide than SIM
    
    
26. Choose the correct statement about toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus:
    • Panton Valentine toxin is associated with HA-MRSA
    • β hemolysin of Staphylococcus aureus is also known as synergohymenotropic toxin
    • Hot-cold phenomenon is exhibited by α hemolysin
    • Enterotoxin is a pyrogenic exotoxin superantigen
    
    
27. Ideally blood levels of vancomycin has to be monitored while treating MRSA infection. What is the trough level of Vancomycin?
    • 4-10 μg/mL
    • 10-20 μg/mL
    • 20-30 μg/mL
    • 30-40 μg/mL
    
    
28. All the tests listed below are useful in differentiating Streptococcus pneumoniae from Viridans streptococci except:
    • Bacitracin sensitivity
    • Bile solubility
    • Inulin fermentation
    • Optochin sensitivity
    
    
29. Crystal violet blood agar is a selective medium for which bacterium?
    • Streptococcus pyogenes
    • Bacillus cereus
    • Bacteroides fragilis
    • Haemophilus ducreyi
    
    
30. Resistance in Streptococcus pneumonia against β lactams is due to:
    • Presence of penicillinase enzymes
    • Efflux pumps
    • Altered penicillin binding proteins
    • Decreased permeability across cell wall
    
    
31. Which among the following serogroup of Neisseria menigitidis is not associated with invasive disease?
    • A
    • B
    • C
    • D
    
    
32. Auxotyping is done for:
    • Meningococci
    • Streptococci
    • Gonococci
    • Enterococci
    
    
33. Choose the false statement regarding diphtheria toxin:
    • The receptor for diphtheria toxin is heparin binding epidermal growth factor
    • 0.1 μg/kg toxin can be lethal to susceptible individual
    • Anti diphtheria antibody titres of ≥ 0.01 U/mL is protective
    • Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum produces diphtheria like toxin
    
    
34. Shanghai fever is caused by:
    • Burkholderia cepacia
    • Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
    • Pseudomonas auruginosa
    • Corynebacterium jeikeium
    
    
35. Which secretion system is responsible for the secretion of Exotoxin A by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
    • Type I
    • Type II
    • Type III
    • Type IV
    
    
36. δ-aminolevulinic acid agar test for Haemophilus influenzae is used to:
    • Detect requirement of X factor
    • Select out H.influenzae
    • Detect requirement of V factor
    • Enhance capsule formation
    
    
37. Acinetobacter baumannii is an established hospital pathogen. All the following statements are true regardingthis agent EXCEPT:
    • A.baumannii can be transmitted by airborne route
    • Most important mechanism for drug resistance is by expression of β lactamases
    • Sulbactum has intrinsic activity against A.baumannii
    • Meropenem and ertapenem are effective in treating A.baumannii infections
    
    
38. Vibrio cholera toxin acts by
    • Glycosylate GTP binding protein
    • Elevated intracellular cGMP
    • ADP ribosylation of G protein
    • Inhibition of cAMP
    
    
39. Twenty two year old male who was severely injured following a road traffic accident was brought to casualty.He has completed the course of tetanus toxoid (TT) 10 years back. He should receive:
    • TT 1 dose + HTIG
    • TT 1 dose
    • TT complete dose
    • TT complete dose + HTIG
    
    
40. Preferred test to confirm H.pylori eradication is:
    • Culture
    • Urea breath test
    • Rapid urease test
    • Antibody detection
    
    
41. Colicin typing is done for:
    • S.dysenteriae
    • S.flexneri
    • S.boydii
    • S.sonnei
    
    
42. Screening for chronic carrier state following S.typhi infection is carried out by:
    • Widal test
    • Demonstrating Vi antigen
    • Detection of Vi antibodies
    • Nested PCR of serum sample
    
    
43. XDR TB is defined as:
    • Resistance to isoniazid and rifampicin irrespective of resistance to any other drug
    • Resistance to more than one drug other than co resistance to INH and rifampicin
    • MDR TB that also is resistant to fluoroquinolones and at least one injectable second-line drugs
    • MDR TB that is resistant to either one of the injectable second line drugs or fluoroquinolones
    
    
44. Choose the correct statement about the tests used for diagnosis of syphilis:
    • RPR and USR tests do not require a microscope to detect flocculation
    • In TPPA, tanned RBCs are coated with T.pallidum antigens
    • TPHA fails to detect CSF antibodies
    • Non treponemal tests are recommended to monitor treatment response
    
    
45. True about Leptospira interrogans:
    • It is a facultative anaerobe
    • Semisolid Fletcher's medium is useful in cultivating this bacterium
    • Levaditi staining is used to demonstrate L.interrogans
    • Serovar specific PCR tests are available
    
    
46. Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K causes:
    • Genital chlamydiasis
    • Interstitial pneumonia
    • Atherosclerosis
    • Lymphogranuloma venereum
    
    
47. Choose the true statement regarding Mycoplasma pneumoniae:
    • Obligate intracellular parasites
    • Mycoplasmas are L forms
    • Lung biopsy specimen typically lacks signs of inflammation
    • Hydrogen peroxide plays a major role in pathogenesis
    
    
48. All the following are true with regards to Coxiella burnetii EXCEPT:
    • Most common mode of transmission is by aerosol route
    • Endocarditis is a major feature of chronic Q fever
    • Anti-phase II IgG titre of > 6400 is diagnostic of chronic Q fever
    • Doxycycline + hydroxychoroquine is used for treating Q fever
    
    
49. Transovarian transmission in vectors is seen in:
    • Scrub typhus
    • Endemic typhus
    • Epidemic typhus
    • Trench fever
    
    
50. How do catalase test for mycobacteria differ from that done for other bacteria?
    • 30% H₂O₂ + 10% Tween 80
    • 1% H₂O₂ + Phosphate buffer at pH 6.4%
    • 3% H₂O₂ + 10% Tween 80
    • 10% H₂O₂ + 0.85% saline
    
    
51. Hair perforation test is positive in
    • Trichophyton violaceum
    • Trichophyton mentagrophytes
    • Trichophyton audouinii
    • Trichophyton schoenleinii
    
    
52. Mode of infection of Ascaris lumbricoides
    • Penetration of skin by larva
    • Autoinfection
    • Ingestion of eggs
    • Ingestion of larva
    
    
53. True about microfilariae of Wuchereria bancrofti
    • Sheathed, nuclei at the tail tip
    • Sheathed, no nuclei at tail tip
    • Unsheathed, no nuclei at tail tip
    • Unsheathed and nuclei at tail tip
    
    
54. Dimorphic fungi causing subcutaneous mycosis
    • Phialophora verrucosa
    • Sporothrix schenckii
    • Fonsecaea pedrosoi
    • Cladosporium carrionii
    
    
55. Subtype of human immunodeficiency virus 1 more common in India.
    • Subtype A
    • Subtype B
    • Subtype C
    • Subtype D
    
    
56. Skin test for diagnosis of hydatid cyst
    • Casoni's test
    • Schick test
    • Dick test
    • Frei test
    
    
57. Immune complex mediated nephritis is seen in chronic infection with
    • Plasmodium malariae
    • Plasmodium ovale
    • Plasmodium vivax
    • Plasmodium falciparum
    
    
58. All are true about super carriers except
    • Highly infectious
    • High level of HBsAg, HBe Ag
    • Low level of HBsAg, no HBeAg
    • High level of HBV DNA, DNA polymerase
    
    
59. Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis
    • Brain
    • Lung
    • Spleen
    • Liver
    
    
60. All are true about Histoplasma capsulatum var.duboisii except
    • Causes African histoplasmosis
    • Skin and bone involvement mainly
    • Yeast cells size 7-15 μm
    • Yeast cell size 2-4 μm
    
    
61. Genotype of Hepatitis C Virus with poor response to treatment
    • Genotype 1b
    • Genotype 1a
    • Genotype 2
    • Genotype 3
    
    
62. Highest mortality in pregnancy is associated with
    • Hepatitis A
    • Hepatitis B
    • Hepatitis E
    • Hepatitis D
    
    
63. All are true about Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis except
    • Strains similar to oral polio virus
    • Seen in places where OPV is used extensively
    • Common serotype Sabin type 3
    • High level genetic divergence from OPV strain
    
    
64. True about Antigenic drift
    • Point mutation
    • Results in pandemics
    • Occurs in influenza A virus
    • Occurs every 10-20 years
    
    
65. Koplik's spots are pathognomonic of
    • Measles
    • Mumps
    • Rubella
    • Chicken pox
    
    
66. Nipah virus belongs to
    • Paramyxovirus
    • Orthomyxovirus
    • Picorna virus
    • Enterovirus
    
    
67. All are true about Negri bodies except
    • Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions
    • Common in cerebellum, hippocampus
    • 2-10 μ size
    • Its absence rule out diagnosis of Rabies
    
    
68. Rabies vaccine is prepared from
    • Street virus
    • Fixed virus
    • Live virus
    • Wild virus
    
    
69. All are human prion disease except
    • Kuru
    • Classical Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
    • Sub acute sclerosing panencephalitis
    • Straussler-Scheinker syndrome
    
    
70. All are Epstein Barr Virus associated malignancy except
    • Burkitt's lymphoma
    • Hodgkin's lymphoma
    • Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
    • Hepatocellular carcinoma
    
    
71. All are true about chickenpox in pregnancy except
    • Not terratogenic
    • Mothers at risk of varicella pneumonia
    • Congenital infection more in 2nd half
    • Congenital infections rare in 1st half
    
    
72. Characteristic cytopathic effect of herpes simplex
    • Diffuse roundening and ballooning
    • Syncitium or multinucleated giant cells
    • Crenation and degeneration
    • Cytoplasmic vacoulation
    
    
73. Which serotype of Dengue virus is more dangerous?
    • Serotype 1
    • Serotype 2
    • Serotype 3
    • Serotype 4
    
    
74. All the following are the genotypes of chikungunea virus except
    • West African
    • East African
    • Asian
    • North American
    
    
75. Commonest clinical presentation of mumps
    • Aseptic meningitis
    • Bilateral parotitis
    • Epididymo orchitis
    • Pancreatitis
    
    
76. Suckling mouse can be used for viral isolation of
    • Coxsackie virus
    • Mumps virus
    • Measles virus
    • Influenza virus
    
    
77. All are true about chicken pox vaccine except
    • Live vaccine
    • One dose for adults
    • Oka strain given
    • 2 doses for children
    
    
78. Germ tube test is positive for
    • Candida albicans
    • Candida glabrata
    • Candida krusei
    • Candida tropicalis
    
    
79. Following are true about Cryptococcus except
    • Serotypes of Cryptococcus - A, B, C, D
    • C.neoformans seen in pigeon droppings
    • Capsule is main virulence factor
    • C.neoformans inhabits in eucalyptus tree
    
    
80. Virus producing haemorrhagic fever
    • Kyasanur forest disease virus
    • Japanese B.encephalitis virus
    • Chandipura virus
    • West Nile virus
    
    
81. Which article defines the amendment of Indian constitution?
    • Article 368
    • Article 367
    • Article 395
    • Article 366
    
    
82. 'Ormmakalude Bhramanapatham' is the autobiography of
    • O. Madhavan
    • Nambi Narayanan
    • G. Madhavan Nair
    • Varghese Vaidyan
    
    
83. Which among the following was the centre of 'Tholviraku Samaram'?
    • Kavumbai
    • Cheemeni
    • Karivellur
    • Morazha
    
    
84. Origin of classical dance 'Kathak' is in
    • Odissha
    • U.P
    • Andhra Pradesh
    • Madhya Pradesh
    
    
85. First electronic digital computer of the world is
    • Deep Blue
    • Cosmos
    • Blue Geno
    • Eniac
    
    
86. Name the book written by Anna Burns, which gets Man Booker Prize in 2018
    • Washington Black
    • Nobones
    • Little construction
    • Milkman
    
    
87. Where was the venue of first session of yogakshema sabha?
    • Aluva
    • Pattambi
    • Kuttippuram
    • Sreekrishnapuram
    
    
88. World Habitat Day is observed on
    • September 17
    • October 9
    • October 3
    • September 12
    
    
89. Who was the first editor of monthly namely 'Vivekodayam'?
    • V.T. Bhattathirippad
    • Vakbhatananda
    • Premji
    • N. Kumaran Asan
    
    
90. Name of the first atomic submarine of India
    • V.R. Gill
    • D.B. Mahawar
    • INS. Chakra
    • R.N. Shukla
    
    
91. Name the programme introduced by government of India for Bangladesh refugees?
    • Operation Insaniyat
    • Operation Bangla
    • Operation Sadbhavana
    • Operation Meghdoot
    
    
92. Name the play written by Lalithambika Antharjanam on the basis of widow re-marriage?
    • Lalithanjali
    • Ayirathiri
    • Punarjanmam
    • Pavithramothiram
    
    
93. Which Indian Five Year Plan is known as 'Gadgil Yojana'?
    • Fourth Plan
    • Third Plan
    • Second Five Year Plan
    • Sixth Five Year Plan
    
    
94. Name the film, which gets national award for best film on social issues in 2017
    • Aalorukkam
    • Thondimuthalum Driksakshiyum
    • Bhayanakam
    • Take off
    
    
95. Swachhbharat scheme was inaugurated on
    • August 15, 2015
    • August 15, 2014
    • October 2, 2014
    • January 26, 2014
    
    
96. Which Tennis Cup is known as Rolandgarros?
    • U.S. Open
    • Australian Open
    • Wimbledon
    • French Open
    
    
97. Name the novel which gets Vayalar Award in 2018?
    • Syamamadhavam
    • Ushnaraashi
    • Thakshankunnu Swaroopam
    • Sugandhi Enna Andal-Devanayaki
    
    
98. The venue of 10th BRICS summit 2018 is
    • Xianen - China
    • Fortaleza - Brazil
    • Johannesberg - South Africa
    • Panaji - Goa, India
    
    
99. Name the programme of government of Kerala for rehabilitation of differently abled
    • Kaivalya
    • Kaithangu
    • Thuna
    • Ardram
    
    
100. The first ever airport of Sikkim is at ____________.
     • Gangtok
     • Lachung
     • Pelling
     • Pakyong