Assistant Professor in ENT Medical Education 217/2017 Answer Key

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Post : Assistant Professor in ENT
Department : Medical Education
Category Code : 217/17
Qualification :Medical Post Graduate Degree + Three years Teaching Experience
Date of Test : 08-02-2018



  1. Which is not a content of posterior triangle of neck?
    • Subclavian artery
    • Trunks of brachial plexus
    • Internal jugular vein
    • Accessory nerve

  2. Wagner and Grossman theory is associated with
    • Vocal cord paralysis
    • Aetiology of nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
    • Cholesteatoma
    • Atrophic rhinitis

  3. Valvassori criteria are associated with
    • Glomus tumour
    • Acoustic neuroma
    • Meniere's disease
    • Bell's palsy

  4. In radical neck dissection, all are removed except
    • IJV
    • Thyroid gland
    • Sternomastoid muscle
    • Accessory N

  5. Orphan-Annie nuclei are seen in
    • Follicular carcinoma thyroid
    • Papillary carcinoma thyroid
    • Medullary carcinoma thyroid
    • Anaplastic carcinoma thyroid

  6. For defects more than two thirds of upper lip, which of the following is the best option of reconstruction
    • Wedge excision
    • Abbe Estlander flap
    • Peri Alar Crescentic flap
    • Burrow-Differ bach flap

  7. The most sensitive investigation for mandibular involvement in oral cavity malignancy is
    • Bone scintigraphy
    • CT scan
    • Orthopantomogram
    • MRI scan

  8. Which of the following types of oral candidiasis has got malignant potential?
    • Thrush
    • Chronic Atrophic candidiasis
    • Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
    • Acute atrophic candidiasis

  9. Layers of vocal cord was proposed by
    • Isshiki
    • Hirano
    • Messerklinger
    • Shambaugh

  10. Role of steroids in infectious Mononucleosis include
    • Upper airway obstruction secondary to IMN
    • Immune mediated anemia
    • Thrombocytopenia
    • All these

  11. Screw driver shaped teeth are seen in
    • Congenital syphilis
    • Dentinogenesis imperfecta
    • Amelogenesis imperfecta
    • Ehler Danlos syndrome

  12. Malignant transformation in submucous fibrosis is
    • 5-10%
    • 10-15%
    • 20-25%
    • 25-30%

  13. Which of the following is not a major diagnostic criteria in Behcet's syndrome?
    • Oral aphthae
    • Genital ulcers
    • Retinal vasculitis
    • Thrombophlebitis

  14. Which of the following is not associated with candidiasis?
    • Median rhomboid glossits
    • Angular cheilitis
    • Geographical tongue
    • Denture associated stomatitis

  15. Which of the following is not in relation to Retro molar trigone?
    • Last mandibular molar
    • Tuberosity of maxilla
    • Condylar process of mandible
    • Ascending ramus of mandible

  16. Paranasal sinus not present at birth is
    • Maxillary
    • Ethmoid
    • Frontal
    • Sphenod

  17. Most posterior ethmoidal air cell extending to sphenoid is
    • Aggar nasi cell
    • Haller cell
    • Onodi cell
    • Kero's cell

  18. Cyst arising from unerrupted tooth is
    • Dental cyst
    • Nasolabial cyst
    • Lateral cyst
    • Dentigerous cyst

  19. Mucocele of paranasal sinus commonly occur in
    • Frontal sinus
    • Maxillary sinus
    • Ethmoidal sinus
    • Sphenoid sinus

  20. Lynch-Howarth operation is
    • Intranasal ethmoidectomy
    • Transantral ethmoidectomy
    • External ethmoidectomy
    • External Frontoethmoidectomy

  21. Facial pain, temperomandibular joint dysfunction is characteristic of
    • Eagle's syndrome
    • Trigeminal neuralgia
    • Mobious syndrome
    • Costen's syndrome

  22. Ringertz tumor treated by
    • Caldwal Luc operation
    • Jansen Horgan operation
    • Lateral rhinotomy and Medial Maxillectomy
    • Total Maxillectomy

  23. Commonest malignancy of maxillary sinus is
    • Squmous cell carcinoma
    • Adeno carcinoma
    • Adenoid cystic carcinoma
    • Rhabdomyosarcoma

  24. Peripheral sinonasal T-cell lymphoma is known as
    • Stewart's granuloma
    • Wegners granuloma
    • Ringerts tumor
    • None of these

  25. In majority of cases of Otosclerosis, tympanic membrane appear
    • Normal
    • Retracted
    • Flamingo pink colour (Schwartz sign)
    • Tympanosclerosis

  26. Fistula in labyrinth is common in
    • Superior semicircular canal
    • Posterior semicircular canal
    • Lateral semicircular canal
    • Promontory

  27. Common type of cholesteatoma
    • Congenital
    • Primary acquired
    • Secondary acquired
    • Any of these

  28. All are true of inverted papilloma except
    • Common in males
    • Pink fleshy lobulated mass
    • Malignant transformation to transitional cell carcinoma in 5% cases
    • Transitional cell papilloma is a synonym

  29. Regarding nasopharyngeal angiofibroma, true statement
    • Common in young males 20-30 years
    • Presents with painful, profuse, paroxysmal epistaxis
    • Treatment of choice is surgery
    • Radiation is the best mode of treatment for large tumour

  30. Treatment of choice for Killian's polyp
    • Lateral rhinotomy
    • Caldwel Luc surgery
    • Endoscopic sinus surgery
    • Steroid spray

  31. Management of Allergic Fungal Sinusitis include all except
    • FESS
    • Antifungal medication
    • Steroid
    • Saline nasal douche

  32. Hennebert sign is seen in
    • Acoustic neuroma
    • Glomus jugulare
    • Congenital syphilis
    • Carotid body tumour

  33. All are true of Quinsy except
    • Unilateral
    • Trismus and drooling of saliva is common
    • Common in children
    • Incision and drainage is the treatment

  34. Correct statement about rhinosporidiosis
    • Rare in Kerala and Tamil Nadu
    • Caused by Klebsiella Seeberi
    • Malignant rhinosporidiosis is malignant transformation of rhinosporidiosis
    • Treated by surgery

  35. All are hyaline cartilage except
    • Thyroid
    • Epiglottis
    • Cricoid
    • Arytenoid

  36. Blue Mantles of Manasse is seen in
    • Cholesterol granuloma
    • Haemotympanum
    • Otosclerosis
    • Glomus tympanicum

  37. All are causes for conductive hearing loss with intact tympanic membrane except
    • Otosclerosis
    • OME
    • Glomus tympanicum
    • Meniere's disease

  38. Stenger's test is used for diagnosis of
    • Otosclerosis
    • Non organic hearing loss
    • Unilateral severe sensorineural hearing loss
    • Presbyacusis

  39. All are true about Ludwig's angina except
    • Steroid is the mainstay of treatment
    • Dental caries accounts for 80% of cases
    • Trismus and odynophagia are common
    • Tracheostomy may be needed in some cases

  40. Kashima surgery is done in
    • Laryngotracheal stenosis
    • Atrophic rhinitis
    • Meniere's disease
    • Bilateral vocal cord paralysis

  41. All are indications for cochlear implantation except
    • Presbyacusis
    • Congenital bilateral profound SNHL in young child
    • Acquired bilateral profound SNHL with good speech
    • Bilateral severe CHL with good speech in an adult

  42. Gold standard for objective measurement of nasal obstruction
    • Nasal endoscopy
    • Acoustic rhinometry
    • Coronal CT scan
    • Rhinomanometry

  43. Candidate not suitable for allergen immunotherapy
    • Strongly positive skin prick test
    • Multiple allergens
    • Unresponsiveness to intranasal corticosteroids
    • Severe allergic symptoms

  44. Biopsy of nasal lesion on histopathology showing non-caseating granuloma with epithelioid cells surrounded by lymphocytes, fibroblasts and calcified inclusion bodies. There was diffuse violaceous discoloration of nasal skin, expansion of nasal bridge and granular appearance of nasal mucosa. Probable diagnosis
    • Wegener's granulomatosis
    • Stewart's granuloma
    • Rhinoscleroma
    • Sarcoidosis

  45. Following is NOT a treatment option in malignant otitis externa
    • Hyperbaric oxygen
    • Parenteral ceftazidime
    • Subtotal petrosectomy
    • Oral Rifampicin

  46. Healed otitis media refers to all EXCEPT
    • Hyaline degeneration of middle ear submucosa
    • Dimeric tympanic membrane
    • Cholesterol granuloma
    • Bony sclerosis

  47. All are etiological factors implicated in Otosclerosis except
    • Persistent viral infection
    • Autosomal recessive inheritance with variable penetrance
    • Autoimmunity to collagen
    • Defect in genetic expression

  48.      Following is not classified as respiratory sleep disorder
    • Obstructive sleep apnoea
    • Cheyne stokes breathing
    • Narcolepsy
    • Central sleep apnoea

  49. Bruning's syringe is used for
    • Injection of Botox in spasmodic dysphonia
    • Injection Augmentation of vocal cord in unilateral paralysis
    • Application of Mitomycin C after laryngotracheal surgery
    • Intratympanic injection of gentamycin/steroid

  50. A reflux episode in esophagus is defined as a fall in pH
    • Less than 2
    • Less than 4
    • Less than 6
    • Less than 8

  51. Most common site of laryngeal involvement in Wegener's granulomatosis
    • Sub glottis
    • Epiglottis
    • Arytenoids
    • Vocal cords

  52. Basal lower esophageal sphincter pressure
    • 10-45 mm of Hg
    • 40-60 mm of Hg
    • 70-90 mm of Hg
    • 60-80 mm of Hg

  53. Cork Screw appearance in esophagogram is a feature of
    • Achalasia Cardia
    • Diffuse esophageal spasm
    • Nut cracker esophagus
    • Zenker's diverticulum

  54. Risk of squamous cell carcinoma esophagus is more in all except
    • Caustic injury
    • Achalasia cardia
    • Tylosis
    • Whites than Black race

  55. Bakamjian flap is
    • Pectoralis major flap
    • Lattissimus Dorsi flap
    • Deltopectoral flap
    • Sternomastoid flap

  56. True about Spasmodic Dysphonia
    • Is a psychological disorder of larynx
    • Speech therapy is the treatment
    • Botox injection is beneficial in attaining voice
    • Antispasmodics improve the condition

  57. Lower esophageal sphincter is high in
    • Achalasia Cardia
    • Diffuse Esophageal Spasm
    • Nut Cracker Esophagus
    • Ineffective Esophageal motility
    Question error

  58. Risk of adenocarcinoma in Barret's esophagus is
    • 0.5%
    • 5%
    • 10%
    • 15%

  59. Los Angel's classification is applied for
    • Carcinoma Esophagus
    • Erosive Esophagitis
    • Non erosive esophagitis
    • Zenker's Diverticulum

  60. Pharyngeal isthmus refers to
    • The space between the skull base and the superior border of superior constrictor muscle
    • Communication between the nasopharynx and oropharynx
    • The space between the thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus
    • The space between the inferior constrictor muscle and oesophageal musculature

  61. Jongkee's formula is used to calculate
    • Percentage of hearing disability from PTA
    • Interaural latency in ABR
    • Percentage of canal paresis in caloric testing
    • SP/AP ratio in electrocochleography

  62. A viral vector well characterised in intracochlear gene therapy
    • Coxsackie virus
    • Myxovirus
    • Paramyxovirus
    • Adeno virus

  63. Mikes dot is the landmark for
    • Ampulla of superior semicircular canal
    • Ampulla of posterior semicircular canal
    • Ampulla of lateral semicircular canal
    • Internal acoustic meatus

  64. Facial nerve is not supplied by
    • Labyrinthine A
    • Stylomastoid A
    • Superior petrosal A
    • Anterior tympanic A

  65. Structure traversing petrotympanic fissure
    • Chorda tympani N
    • Arnold's N
    • Jacobson's N
    • Posterior tympanic A

  66. Type C defect in Austin's classification
    • M+S+
    • M-S+
    • M+S-
    • M-S-

  67. Thayer-Martin plate is used for screening pharyngitis caused by
    • Neisseria gonorrhoea
    • Group C Streptococcus
    • Epstein Barr Virus
    • Chlamydia pneumoneae

  68. Lemierre syndrome is most commonly caused by
    • Acinetobacter haemolyticus
    • Corynebacterium haemolyticus
    • Bacteroids fragilis
    • Fusobacterium necrophorum

  69. Risk of malignancy in asymmetrical adult tonsil with normal mucosa in the absence of cervical lymphadenopathy is
    • 0%
    • 0.35%
    • 7%
    • 14%

  70. Regarding Ramsay Hunt syndrome, false statement
    • LMN facial nerve paralysis
    • Vesicles around ear
    • Acyclovir and steroids is the treatment
    • SNHL usually present

  71. Hyperacusis in Bell's palsy is due to paralysis of
    • Tensor tympani
    • Levator veli palatini
    • Tensor veli palatini
    • Stapedius

  72. Most common site of otosclerosis
    • Round window
    • Fissula ante fenestrum
    • Fissula post fenestrum
    • Eustachian tube orifice

  73. Atrophic rhinitis treatment includes all except
    • Young's operation
    • Alkaline nasal douche
    • Vidian neurectomy
    • 25% glucose in glycerine nasal drops

  74. Thickness of human tympanic membrane
    • 0.1 mm
    • 1 mm
    • 5 mm
    • 10 mm

  75. False regarding treatment of nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
    • DSA and embolisation prior to surgery is useful
    • Coblator assisted endoscopic surgery is currently used
    • Intracranial extension needs radiotherapy
    • Partial encasement of tumour to carotid is not a contraindication for surgery

  76. Investigation of choice for CSF Rhinorrhoea
    • CT Scan
    • Beta 2 transferrin assay
    • CT Cisternography
    • Lumbar puncture

  77. Ortner's syndrome is associated with
    • Facial N paralysis
    • Recurrent laryngeal N paralysis
    • Abducent N paralysis
    • Hypoglossal N paralysis

  78. Indications for early cochlear implantation
    • Head trauma
    • Ototoxicity
    • Presbyacusis
    • Meningitis

  79. "Father of Laryngology"
    • Messerklinger
    • Heinz Stammberger
    • Manuel Garcia
    • Isshiki

  80. Commonest cause for acute bilateral simultaneous facial nerve paralysis
    • Guillian Barre syndrome
    • Chronic otitis media
    • Trauma
    • Multiple sclerosis

  81. By which amendment the word 'Secularism' was inserted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
    • 41 Amendment
    • 42 Amendment
    • 43 Amendment
    • 52 Amendment

  82. The national leader who headed the committee which prepared the Wardha Scheme of Education?
    • Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    • Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
    • Dr. Zakir Hussian
    • Dr. Visweswarayya

  83. India has adopted Directive Principles of State Policy from __________.
    • British constitution
    • German constitution
    • American constitution
    • Irish constitution

  84. The Central Social Welfare Board was established in the year __________.
    • 1951
    • 1952
    • 1953
    • 1954

  85. Which Prime Minister of India launched the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)?
    • Rajiv Gandhi
    • Narasimha Rao
    • Atal Bihari vajpayee
    • Manmohan Singh

  86. Who wrote the play "Adukkalayil Ninnum Arangathekku"?
    • M.P. Bhattathiripad
    • V.T. Bhattathirippad
    • Kuroor Brahmadattan Namboothiripad
    • E.M.S. Namboothiripad

  87. Who has been hailed as the "Father of Modern Kerala Renaissance"?
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Chattampi Swamikal
    • Ayyankali
    • Vagbhatananda

  88. Who was known as the 'Joan of arc of Kerala'?
    • A.V. Kuttimalu Amma
    • Akkamma Cheriyan
    • Arya Pallam
    • Anna Chandi

  89. How many articles were there originally in Constitution of India?
    • 365
    • 375
    • 385
    • 395

  90. Who is the author of the book "Prabudha Keralam"?
    • Swami Agamananda
    • Vaikunda Swamikal
    • Thycaud Ayya Vaikundar
    • Kumara Guru

  91. Who among the following has won the Nobel Prize for Literature 2017?
    • Alice Munro
    • Orhan Pamuk
    • Kazuo Ishiguro
    • Doris Lessing

  92. Which Article of Indian Constitution ensures abolition of Untouchability?
    • Article 14
    • Article 15
    • Article 16
    • Article 17

  93. Who has become the first person from India to win Anna Politkovskaya Award?
    • Gauri Lankesh
    • Medha Patkar
    • Vandana Siva
    • Daya Bhai

  94. Who is known as 'Kerala Scot'?
    • Ulloor S Parameswara Iyyer
    • Kumaran Asan
    • C.V. Raman Pillai
    • P. Kunjiraman

  95. Who wins the 2017 Australian Open Women's Single Title?
    • Venus Williams
    • Serena Williams
    • Maria Sharapova
    • Martina Hingis

  96. In which year government of Kerala launched Kudumbasree?
    • 1995
    • 1996
    • 1997
    • 1998

  97. Which one of the following newspaper was associated with K. Ramakrishna Pillai?
    • Malayala Manorama
    • Rajyasamacharam
    • Mathrubhoomi
    • Swadeshabhimani

  98. Vaikkom Sathyagraha broke out in the year ___________.
    • 1942
    • 1925
    • 1924
    • 1932

  99. First computerised Panchayath in Kerala?
    • Nedumangad
    • Vellanad
    • Varkala
    • Parasala

  100. English education started in Travancore at the time of
    • Ayilyam Tirunal
    • Swathi Tirunal
    • Visakham Tirunal
    • Uthradam Tirunal

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