Assistant Professor in Radiotherapy 20/2018 Answer key

Post: Assistant Professor in Radiotherapy
Department: Medical Education Service
Category Code: 20/18
Qualification: M.D  (Radiotherapy) /DNB (Radiotherapy) + 3 Year experience
Date of Test: 06-12-2018


If you find mistakes, comment below

1. A nucleus remains stable as Z(proton number) increases when
   • no. of neutrons > no. of protons
   • no. of protons > no. of neutrons
   • no. of protons = no. of neutrons
   • none of these
   
   
2. In 90_Sr- 90_Y beta ray applicator, the parent and daughter nuclei are in
   • Transient equilibrium
   • Secular equilibrium
   • Relative equilibrium
   • Not in equilibrium
   
   
3. Compton interaction depends up on
   • Photon energy and electron density of the medium
   • Z and the electron density of the medium
   • Photon energy and Z of the medium
   • Z and free electron energy level of the medium
   
   
4. In build up region for high energy photon beams
   • Energy transferred increases
   • Energy absorbed increases
   • Energy absorbed decreases
   • Energy transferred is equal to energy absorbed
   
   
5. The calculation parameters which we used for the SSD set up treatments are
   • PDD and the dose rate in air at Isocentre
   • TMR and the dose rate in air at Isocentre
   • PDD and the dose rate in water at d_max
   • TMR and dose rate in water at d_max
   
   
6. The unit of integral dose is
   • Joule/Kg
   • Coulomb/Kg
   • Joule Kg
   • Joule
   
   
7. Radiation Field size is defined as the
   • Lateral distance between the collimator opening
   • Lateral distance between the optical field edges
   • Lateral distance between the 90% Isodose line at reference depth
   • Lateral distance between 50% Isodose line at reference depth
   
   
8. Radiation weighting factor is same for
   • Photons and electrons
   • Neutrons and photons
   • Thermal neutrons and protons
   • None of these
   
   
9. Using TLD personal monitoring system we can detect
   • Only photons
   • Only electrons
   • Photons and electrons
   • Photons, electrons and neutrons
   
   
10. The filters used with Mega Voltage x-rays is for
    • Removing unwanted soft X rays
    • Making the intensity uniform across the beam
    • Removing the horns across the beam
    • All of these
    
    
11. "Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm with involvement of spleen and extra lymphatic organ" in Ann Arbor staging classification for Hodgkins disease is
    • III
    • III S
    • III E
    • III SE
    
    
12. The therapeutic ratio of a given regimen is the ratio of
    • Percentage tumor control with therapy/Percentage complication with therapy
    • Percentage complication with therapy/Percentage tumor control with therapy
    • Percentage normal tissue damage/Percentage tumor tissue damage
    • None of these
    
    
13. Beckwith Wiedemann Syndrome is associated with Wilm' stumor in
    • 13%
    • 5%
    • 9%
    • 1%
    
    
14. 5 year survival rate of inflammatory breast cancer after multidisciplinary management
    • 20%
    • 25%
    • 30%
    • 40%
    
    
15. All the following included in electromagnetic spectrum except
    • Visible light
    • Gamma-rays
    • Beta rays
    • X-rays
    
    
16. Risk of relapse of stage I seminoma after high inguinal radical orchidectomy is
    • 10%
    • 20%
    • 30%
    • 40%
    
    
17. What is the dose limit for whole body of a radiation worker?
    • 1 mSv/year
    • 10 mSv/year
    • 20 mSv/year
    • 30 mSv/year
    
    
18. Which of the following gene(s) is/are associated with hereditary breast cancer?
    • BRCA1/BRCA2
    • CHECK2
    • PALB2
    • All of these
    
    
19. Nobel prize for the discovery of cell cycle was received by all except
    • H. Hartwell
    • Timothy Hunt
    • Zetterberg
    • Paul M. Nurse
    
    
20. Gamma ray energy related to cobalt 60 radiosotope
    • 1.25 MeV
    • 1.17 MeV
    • 1.33 MeV
    • All of these
    
    
21. Which of the following statements regarding lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) is wrong?
    • LCIS cells are commonly ER negative
    • LCIS has been reported to present with a multi centric distribution in upto 90% of the mastectomy specimen
    • Loss of E cadherin is often observed
    • Represents <15% of all noninvasive breast cancer
    
    
22. Type of asbestosfibers with highest risk of malignant pleural mesothelioma
    • Chrysotile
    • Amphibole
    • Cribriform
    • Cruciate
    
    
23. Normal tissue tolerance dose of heart with conventional fractionation radiation treatment is
    • No more than 1/3 of heart volume to receive 20 Gy
    • No more then 1/3 of heart volume to receive 40 Gy
    • No more than 1/3 of heart volume to receive 60 Gy
    • No more than 1/3 of heart volume to receive 80 Gy
    
    
24. Most common origin for cardiac metastasis is
    • Upper gastro intestinal tract
    • Breast
    • Lung
    • Melanoma
    
    
25. The risk of breast cancer in a woman whose second degree relative has breast cancer is
    • 1.5%
    • 5%
    • 10%
    • 3%
    
    
26. Bite block (intraoral device) is used in the radiation treatment of carcinoma tongue to
    • Replace air and give uniform dose distribution
    • Reduce radiation toxicity to buccal mucosa and hard palate
    • Immobilization of tongue
    • All of these
    
    
27. Standard dose of definitive radiation therapy for esophageal cancer is
    • 45 to 50 Gy at conventional fractionation schedule
    • 50 to 50.4v Gy at conventional fractionation schedule
    • 60 to 64.8 Gy at conventional fractionation schedule
    • 55 to 60.4 Gy at conventional fractionation schedule
    
    
28. Prophylactic cranial irradiation indicated in
    • CML
    • Esthesioneuroblastoma
    • Small cell lung carcinoma
    • All of these
    
    
29. Cranial nerve least affected in carcinoma nasopharynx is
    • I
    • III
    • V
    • VII
    
    
30. Mechanism of chemotherapy induced radiation sensitivity of taxanes
    • Cellular arrest in G2M phase of the cell cycle
    • Induction of apoptosis
    • Reoxygenation of tumor cells
    • All of these
    
    
31. Which of the following normal tissue constraints is wrong?
    • Optic nerve - Maximum < 55 Gy
    • Optic chiasm - Maximum < 55 Gy
    • Brain stem - Maximum < 45 Gy
    • Spinal cord - Maximum < 45 Gy
    
    
32. Cervicallymphadenopathy is present in upto _____________ % of patients with carcinoma nasopharynx.
    • 57
    • 67
    • 77
    • 87
    
    
33. Half-life of iodine -131 is
    • 24 Hours
    • 8 Days
    • 72 Hours
    • 5.26 Years
    
    
34. Which of the following is correct?
    • LDR range of 1-2 Gy/hour
    • MDR range of 2-12 Gy/minute
    • HDR over 12000 cGy/hour
    • None of these
    
    
35. Median lethal dose of whole body radiation expressed as a single fraction is approximately
    • 4 Gy
    • 8 Gy
    • 15 Gy
    • 20 Gy
    
    
36. Which of the following regarding "hot spot" is correct (ICRU report 62)?
    • Volume outside PTV that receives dose>100% of specified PTV dose at least 2cm³ in a section
    • High dose to RVR (Remaining Volume at Risk)
    • Volume outside PTV that receives dose>100% of specified PTV dose, 15mm diameter
    • Area outside target that receives dose>100% of specified target dose, at least 2cm³ in a section
    
    
37. PDD (Percentage Death Dose) of gamma rays of Cobalt 60 at 10 cm depth is (SSD-80 cm)
    • 45%
    • 55%
    • 65%
    • 75%
    
    
38. FDA approved antiangiogenic drug Regorafenib improves overall survival in chemo refractory metastatic colorectal cancer is
    • 1.4 months
    • 4.7 months
    • 6.2 months
    • 8.1 months
    
    
39. Which of the following is not a Hallmark of cancer?
    • Self-sufficiency in growth signals
    • Sensitivity to anti-growth signals
    • Resistance to Apoptosis
    • Limitless replicative potential
    
    
40. Which is wrong regarding hyper fractonation?
    • Smaller than standard doses/fraction
    • Treating once a day for 6 or 7 days/week
    • Usually gives two fractions/day for five days/week
    • Overall treatment time prolonged
    
    
41. Van Nuys Prognostic Index for ductal carcinoma in (breast) considers following features except
    • Lesion size
    • Perivascular invasion
    • Margins
    • Histology
    
    
42. Positive immunohistochemistry staining for calcitonin in medullary carcinoma thyroid has sensitivity range of ______________ in cytology specimen
    • 95-100%
    • 75-80%
    • 65-70%
    • 55-60%
    
    
43. For detecting Minimal residual disease following complete clinical remission in leukemia, which test technique helps in decreasing false positives
    • Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
    • Reverse transcriptase PCR
    • Real time PCR
    • Florescent In situ Hybridization
    
    
44. Which chromosomal translocation in ALL have favorable prognosis?
    • t(12;21) (p12;q22)
    • t(9;22) (q34;q11)
    • t(1;19) (q23;p13)
    • t(4;11) (q21:q23)
    
    
45. The following gene expression profiles in Diffuse Large B cell Lymphoma shows poor prognosis except
    • Bcl-2 expression
    • Bcl-1 expression
    • HLA-DR expression
    • P53 gene mutation
    
    
46. True regarding flow cytometry in cancer diagnosis include
    • Prompt result availability
    • Need for fresh specimen
    • Can analyze two or more markers simultaneously
    • All of these
    
    
47. T4N2M1 (ipsilateral) carcinoma lung comes under which composite stage?
    • Stage IIB
    • Stage IIIA
    • Stage IIIB
    • Stage IV
    
    
48. As per NCCN guidelines 2018, FIGO stage IA of epithelial ovarian cancer patients in whom fertility needs to be preserved is treated by
    • Bilateral salpingo-oopherectomty
    • Unilateral salpingo-oopherectomty
    • Total Abdominal Hystrectomy with bilateral salpingo-oopherectomty and comprehensive staging
    • Unilateral salpingo-oopherectomty with comprehensive staging
    
    
49. PET scan is considered "essential" in following initial tumor workup as per NCCN guidelines except
    • Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
    • Hodgkins disease
    • Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Follicular Lymphoma
    • Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Gastric MALT lymphoma
    
    
50. FIGO staging workup for carcinoma cervix include
    • CT scan abdomen
    • MRI Scan abdomen
    • USG abdomen
    • None of these
    
    
51. Indication/s of Radiotherapy in sigmoid or caecal primary carcinoma include all except
    • Close or positive resection margin
    • All T2-T3 diseases
    • T4 disease with pelvic adherence
    • Both "Close or positive resection margin" and "T4 disease with pelvic adherence"
    
    
52. Regarding results of German Trial in treatment of cancer Rectum, pre operative chemo radiotherapy showed following results compared to post operative chemo radiotherapy
    • Improved 5 year survival rate
    • Decreased chronic toxicity rate
    • Poor sphincter preservation rate
    • Increased acute toxicity rate
    
    
53. WPRT (Whole Prostate Radiotherapy) is indicated in all except
    • Lymph node involvement as per radiological investigation
    • Risk of lymph node involvement >/=15%
    • Gleasons score of 7 and more than 50% biopsy positive
    • None of these
    
    
54. Total Low Dose Rate brachytherapy dose commonly used in carcinoma cervix treatment after external beam radiotherapy of 45Gy is __________Gy
    • 30 Gy
    • 35 Gy
    • 40 Gy
    • 45 Gy
    
    
55. A 15 year old boy with swelling tibial shaft complaints of local pain and fever. Histopathology shows small round cells. Most likely diagnoses is
    • Osteochondroma
    • Giant cell carcin oma
    • Osteosarcoma
    • Ewings sarcoma
    
    
56. A patient is receiving Cytarabine, Daunorubicin and Etoposide as part of induction therapy for Leukemia.ECG shows peaked T wave with ST depression. Child's heart rate is 70/minute (<20% from base line heart rate). Serum potassium of 7.4 m Eq/L. Clinical should initiate measures to manage
    • Tumor Lyses Syndrome
    • Hyperkalemia
    • Hyper leukocytosis
    • Syndrome of Insufficient ADH secretion
    
    
57. In Breast Reconstruction Surgery after mastectomy, which of the following is not true regarding TRAM flap.
    • Flap may be based on a pedicled Superior Epigastric artery
    • It is a type of myo cutaneous flap
    • The flap can be transferred as a free flap
    • It uses supra umbilical fat
    
    
58. As per NSABP B-18 trial, _____ % of patients who had a planned mastectomy were able to undergo breast conservation therapy following neo adjuvant chemotherapy.
    • 5%
    • 9%
    • 13%
    • 17%
    
    
59. The prescribed dose in Carcinoma Nasopharynx radiation planning is ______ to PTV of Clinical Target Volume (CTV) gross and ______ to PTV of CTV high risk subclinical disease.
    • 70 Gy, 59.4 Gy
    • 64 Gy, 59.4 Gy
    • 59.4 Gy, 54 Gy
    • 54 Gy, 59.4 Gy
    
    
60. Radio Surgery for focally recurrent Glioblastoma Multiforme has resulted in median survival of
    • 3 to 5 months
    • 5 to 8 months
    • 8 to 10 months
    • 12 to 18 months
    
    
61. People friendly health care delivery system is the concept of
    • Mission LIFE
    • Mission Aardram
    • Education mission
    • Haritha Keralam
    
    
62. Historically the first chemotherapeutic drugs used in the clinical setting were
    • Anthracyclines
    • Antimetabolites
    • Alkylating agents
    • None
    
    
63. Adverse effects of oral morphine includes all EXCEPT
    • Respiratory depression
    • Nausea and vomiting
    • Sedation
    • Constipation
    
    
64. The vitamin used to reduce the severity of hand foot syndrome of 5-fluro uracil
    • B12
    • B2
    • C
    • B6
    
    
65. NOT true about tamoxifen flare
    • Occurs in approximately 30% of cases with metastatic disease
    • It develops in the first few weeks of therapy
    • Full dose of tamoxifen should be continued
    • Occasionally associated with hypercalcemia
    
    
66. A measure of central tendency
    • Range
    • Standard deviation
    • Mode
    • None
    
    
67. The dominant means of energy production in cancer cells
    • Gluconeogenesis
    • Glycolysis
    • Lactic acidosis
    • None
    
    
68. A radiotherapy emergency
    • Superior venacava obstruction
    • Severe bone pain
    • Spinal cord compression
    • Brain metastasis
    
    
69. The time interval between end of treatment and PET imaging after concurrent chemoradiation should be at least
    • 6-8 weeks
    • 10-12 weeks
    • 2-3 weeks
    • 24-36 weeks
    
    
70. For all the following analytical studies, the individual is the unit of analysis EXCEPT
    • Ecological
    • Cross sectional
    • Cohort
    • Case control
    
    
71. Prophylactic surgery can prevent cancer in
    • Ulcerative colitis
    • Multiple endocrine neoplasia
    • Both Ulcerative colitis and Multiple endocrine neoplasia
    • None
    
    
72. NOT true about mesna
    • Its a synthetic sulfhydryl compound
    • May cause false positive results for ketones
    • The usual does is 80% of the daily mg ifosfamide dose
    • May not prevent hemorrhagic cystitis in all patients
    
    
73. All are elements of communicating bad news-the SPIKE approach EXCEPT
    • Intimacy
    • Perception and preparation
    • Knowledge of the condition
    • Empathy and exploration
    
    
74. All are adverse effects of cisplatin EXCEPT
    • Neuropathy
    • Ototoxicity
    • Nephrotoxicity
    • Hypercalcemia
    
    
75. The APL group will get the benefit of karunya benevolent fund if their annual income is below
    • 5 lakhs
    • 3 lakhs
    • 1 lakhs
    • 4 lakhs
    
    
76. When a patient completes his/her age 18 years after commencement of treatment, further assistance under cancer suraksha scheme will be extended for a maximum period of
    • 5 years
    • 3 years
    • 2 years
    • None
    
    
77. About Nivolumab TRUE
    • Anticytotoxic T lymphocyte associated protein 4 (CTLA4) inhibitor
    • Programmed cell death 1 (PD-1) inhibitor
    • mTOR kinase inhibitor
    • None
    
    
78. Alemtuzumab targets
    • CD 33 antigen
    • CD 20 antigen
    • CD 52 antigen
    • Epidermal growth factor
    
    
79. NOT true of phase III trails
    • The primary endpoints should be demonstrably related to patient benefit
    • Eligibility criteria should be broad to enhance generalizability of results
    • Conditions of treatment should be suited to community patient care
    • A quality of life measure should be included to measure benefit to patients
    
    
80. Patient reported outcomes are important endpoint in oncology research because
    • Cancer treatments often have a large impact on overall survival
    • Cancer treatment decisions are often straight forward
    • Cancer treatments that are curative need to be advanced
    • Cancer treatments often have significant toxicity
    
    
81. The Chilika Lake lies in the state of
    • Gujarat
    • Jammu and Kashmir
    • Rajasthan
    • Orissa
    
    
82. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through
    • Orissa
    • Rajasthan
    • Chhattisgarh
    • Tripura
    
    
83. The Pastern most longitude of India is
    • 68°7’E
    • 77°6’E
    • 82°32’E
    • 97°25’E
    
    
84. Uttarakhand, Uttarpradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Skikkim have Common frontiers with
    • Nepal
    • China
    • Bhutan
    • Myanmar
    
    
85. The height of the mountain peak Nanda devi is _____________ metre.
    • 8598
    • 7817
    • 8172
    • 7756
    
    
86. Which five year plan introduced IRDP and NREP?
    • 7th
    • 6th
    • 5th
    • 4th
    
    
87. The book "Planned Economy for India" was written by
    • P. C. Mahalanobis
    • Dr. K. M. Raj
    • M. Visveswaraya
    • Dr. Manmohan Singh
    
    
88. The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was enacted in the year
    • 1969
    • 1970
    • 1973
    • 1971
    
    
89. Who presented the first budget in Kerala Assembly?
    • P. K. Kunju
    • C. Achutha Menon
    • R. Sankar
    • K. R. Gauri
    
    
90. Anamudi, the highest Peak in Kerala is in __________ Taluk.
    • Munnar
    • Peerumed
    • Devikulam
    • Chittoor
    
    
91. Who wrote the book "Jathinirnayam"?
    • Chattambi Swamikal
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Ayya Vaikundar
    • Kumaran Asan
    
    
92. Who is the propagator of the idea, "Anandajati"?
    • Ayyankali
    • Vagbhatananda
    • Brahmananda Sivayogi
    • Pandit Karuppan
    
    
93. Who translated the "Atmopadesa Sathakam" of Sree Narayana Guru to English language?
    • Dr. Palpu
    • Kumaranasam
    • Thycand Ayya
    • Nataraja Guru
    
    
94. c. Kesavan made the Kozhencherry speech in the year
    • 1932
    • 1933
    • 1935
    • 1936
    
    
95. "Chithralekha" is written by
    • Pandit Karuppan
    • Kumara Asam
    • Thycaud Ayya
    • Vaghbatananda
    
    
96. The cleanest city in India, by the Survey of 2018
    • Bhopal
    • Chandigarh
    • Lucknow
    • Indore
    
    
97. Who won the Orange Cap for leading run scorer of the IPL Tournament 2018?
    • Kane Williamson
    • Virat Kohli
    • Rishabh Pant
    • A B devilliers
    
    
98. Which bank was the first to introduce ATMs to the world?
    • Hong Kong Bank
    • Standard Chartered Bank
    • Citi Bank
    • Bank of America
    Question Error
    
    
99. The 105th Indian Science Congress was held in 2018 at
    • Bhuvaneswar
    • Bangaluru
    • Bhopal
    • Imphal
    
    
100. The winner of J. C. Danil Award 2017
     • Adoor Gopalakrishnan
     • Sree Kumaran Thanpi
     • M. K. Arjunam
     • K. G. George