Assistant Professor in Paediatrics 123/2018 Answer Key

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Post: Assistant Professor in Paediatrics
Department: Medical Education
Category Code: 123/18
Qualification: MD (Paediatrics)/ DNB (Paediatrics)
Date of Test: 27-03-2019


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  1. Commonest aetiology for chronic kidney disease in children
    • Congenital anomaly of kidney and urinary tract
    • Haemolytic uremic syndrome
    • Focal segmental glomerular sclerosis
    • IgA Nephropathy

  2. In minimal change disease in children after the first remission what is the percentage of relapse
    • 10-20%
    • 30-40%
    • 50-60%
    • 70-75%

  3. Megalocornea is defined as a non progressive symmetric condition characterized by an enlarged cornea more than
    • 10 mm
    • 12 mm
    • 14 mm
    • 8 mm

  4. Clearing of the external auditory canal is done by all except one
    • Self-cleaning by the squamous migration of the ear canal skin
    • Parental clearing of the cerumen with cotton swab
    • By the surgical head of the otoscope
    • Gentle suction with a suction tube

  5. The duration of treatment of acute otitis media in children is
    • 7 days
    • 5 days
    • 10 days
    • 14 days

  6. In FSGS pathological changes are most prominent in glomeruli located at
    • outer cortex
    • middle cortex
    • corticomedullary junction
    • inner cortex

  7. Tonsil is derived from
    • 2nd cleft
    • 3rd cleft
    • 2nd pouch
    • 1st pouch

  8. Cetyl trimethyl ammonium Bromide test is done for
    • Phenylketonuria
    • Mucopolysaccharidosis
    • Maple syrup urine disease
    • Lactic acidosis

  9. Which one of the following features is a factor in the pathogenesis of (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobin uria) PNH?
    • an acquired mutation in the ANK1 gene
    • defective haemoglobin
    • reduced expression of CD55 and CD59 on the surface of hematopoietic cells
    • weakened interaction between the red cell membrane and the cytoskeleton

  10. In nutritional anaemia the first parameter most often altered
    • MCV
    • MCH
    • RDW
    • Haemoglobin

  11. The long antero posterior diameter of the eye causes
    • astigmatism
    • amblyopia
    • myopia
    • hyperopia

  12. The time limit for infusion of platelet concentrate from start to completion is
    • within 2 hours
    • within 20 mts
    • within 4 hours
    • within 1 hour

  13. When an individual with multiple cognitive disabilities has extraordinary proficiency in one isolated skill, this is known as
    • Rainman syndrome
    • Asperger syndrome
    • Intellectual isolation
    • Savant syndrome

  14. In new-born with galactosemea which is the organism producing sepsis
    • Streptococcus
    • Staphylococcus
    • E.coli
    • Klebsiella

  15. Which of the following is a topographical model of mind by Freud?
    • Id-Ego-Supergo
    • Unconscious-Preconscious-Conscious
    • Regression-repression-suppression
    • Denial-Rationalization-Projection

  16. Which one of the following investigation is most likely to identify a specific genetic cause in a dysmorphic child?
    • PCR
    • Family history
    • Birth history
    • Microarray

  17. The laboratory test useful for assessing the function of vWf is
    • platelet aggregation test
    • prothrombin time
    • ristocetin aggregation test
    • clotting time    

  18. Which one of the following is not a risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
    • older sibling with DDH
    • the presence of spina bifida
    • female gender
    • severe ologohydraminos

  19. Subcutaneous fat necrosis in newborn is associated with
    • hypernatremia
    • hypocalemea
    • hypercalcemea
    • hyponatremea

  20. Stein bergs sign is seen in
    • Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
    • Ehlers Danlos syndrome
    • Marfan syndrome
    • Blooms syndrome

  21. Darier's sign is seen in
    • Dermatophytosis
    • Histiocytosis
    • Mastocytosis
    • Pemphigus

  22. Child with frog like position and resistance to move the limbs has
    • Scurvy
    • Rickets
    • Trauma
    • Congenital dislocation

  23. Paniculitis is
    • Infection of the subcutaneous fat
    • Infection of the hair follicle
    • Inflammation of epidermis
    • Infection of the sebaceous glands

  24. When does a child walk up and down stairs without help?
    • 13 months
    • 15 months
    • 18 months
    • 24 months

  25. When do children perform a unilateral reach?
    • 4 months
    • 6 months
    • 7 months
    • 8 months

  26. Net protein utilisation of egg is
    • 100
    • 95
    • 90
    • 80

  27. The term which encompasses the provision of splints and appliances which improve the function and appearance of a patient
    • Orthosis
    • Prosthetics
    • Orthotics
    • Walking aids

  28. Profound hearing loss is hearing loss
    • above 40 decibels
    • above 90 db
    • above 110 db
    • above 60 db

  29. Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological or anatomical structure or function is called
    • disability
    • handicap
    • impairement
    • damage

  30. A 5 month old presented with hypoglycaemia, mild growth retardation, micropenis, the diagnosis can be
    • Growth hormone deficiency
    • Fatty acid oxidation defect
    • Glycogen storage disorder
    • Hyperinsulinism

  31. The recurrence risk in AD inheritance is
    • 50%
    • 25%
    • 75%
    • 100%

  32. For children 1-5 yrs, prophylaxis against nutritional anaemia programme, one tablet of iron and folic acid
    • 20 mg of iron and 100 mg folic acid
    • 60 mg of iron and 10 mg of folic acid
    • 20 mg of iron and 50 mg of folic acid
    • 20 mg of iron and 500 mg of folic
    Question error

  33. Adrenal calcification is seen in all except
    • Wolman syndrome
    • In Cushing syndrome
    • In those who recover from Water-house-Friederichsen syndrome
    • In neuroblastoma

  34. The "gold standard" for the treatment of retinopathy of prematurity is
    • Vitrectomy
    • Anti VEGF agent Bevacizumab
    • Cryotherapy
    • Laser photocoagulation

  35. Hall's criteria for Down syndrome include all except
    • hypotonia
    • poor moro reflex
    • three fontanels
    • joint hyper flexibility

  36. Friedreich ataxia is caused by a mutation of a gene locus on which chromosome
    • Chromosome 4
    • Chromosome 9
    • Chromosome 14
    • Chromosome 19

  37. A boy with intractable seizures is referred for seizure management. A work up reveals mesial temporal lobe epilepsy with hippocampal sclerosis. What is the most appropriate management?
    • continuous intravenous benzodiazepine
    • ketogenic diet
    • temporal lobe resection
    • high dose phenytoin

  38. Which of the following has the highest glycaemic index?
    • Biscuit
    • Potato
    • Dextrose
    • Bread

  39. Expressed and frozen breast milk before feeding the child can be
    • microwaved
    • thawed by tepid water
    • boiled
    • kept outside until it is warm

  40. Principle of complimentary feeding includes all except
    • Introduce one food at a time
    • Iron containing foods are required
    • Sugar sweetened beverages should be given to meet energy requirements
    • Phytate intake should be low

  41. All of the following meet clinical diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type-1 except
    • six café au lait spots more than 5 mm in diameter in prepubertal individuals
    • two or more neurofibromas
    • one café au lait spot more than 10 mm in diameter in post pubertal individuals
    • two or more iris hamartomas

  42. Which drug is contraindicated in hepatic dysfunction?
    • erythromycin
    • ampicillin
    • cefotaxime
    • amoxycillin

  43. A child with severe malnutrition with severe dehydration and no evidence of shock WHO recommended fluid therapy is
    • RL with 5% dextrose
    • Half normal saline with 5% dextrose
    • Half strength Darrow solution with 5% dextrose
    • Oral or nasogastric Resomal

  44. In Pantothenate kinase associated neurodegeneration there is accumulation of ___________ in brain.
    • Copper
    • Iron
    • Zinc
    • Calcium

  45. Most common heart disease in foetal alcohol syndrome
    • VSD
    • ASD
    • Fallots Tetralogy
    • PDA

  46. Symptoms suggestive of imminent exacerbation of asthma include all except
    • increased day time cough
    • day time wheeze
    • night-time beta 2 agonist use
    • night time cough

  47. The Phalangeal depth ratio in normal subjects is
    • <1
    • equal to one
    • >1
    • >1.5

  48. Recurrent pneumonia is characterised by
    • 2 or more episodes in a single year
    • 6 or more episodes ever
    • 4 or more episodes in a single year
    • 4 or more episodes ever

  49. Compared to the apex of the lung, at the base of the lung
    • Blood flow is lowest
    • Ventilation is lowest
    • V/Q is highest
    • Alveolar PCO2 is highest

  50. Preoperative fasting order for breast milk in an infant is
    • Minimum of 6 hrs of fasting
    • Minimum 4 hrs fasting
    • No fasting is required
    • Minimum of 2 hrs

  51. In central precocious puberty one is false
    • Osseous maturation is retarded
    • Greater diagnostic power when LH is obtained during sleep
    • Serum testerone levels are elevated
    • Hypothalamic hamartomas are the most common brain lesion causing central precocious puberty

  52. In Kocher-Debre-Semelaigne syndrome one is not true
    • The muscles are hypotonic
    • There is generalised muscular pseudohypertrophy
    • Girls are more affected
    • Affected patients have hypothyroidism of longer duration

  53. Highest incidence of pseudomenbranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of
    • Cephalosporins
    • Carbepenems
    • Vancomycin
    • Clindamycin

  54. In Klinifelter syndrome one is false
    • 80% of them have a 47, XXY chromosome compliment
    • Cryptorchidism is common
    • Adults have Gynecomastia
    • Serum LH and FSH concentration are low at round 13 years of age

  55. Cyanosis with left axis deviation in ECG is suggestive of
    • TOF
    • Tricuspid atresia
    • Ebsteins anomaly
    • Trans position of great arteries

  56. Innocent murmurs one of the following is not a feature
    • Short ejection systolic murmur
    • Radiation to apex
    • Best heard in the left lower sternal border
    • Intensity of murmur changes with respiration

  57. Infective endocarditis is not seen in
    • ASD
    • TOF
    • VSD
    • MR

  58. If the venous pH is 7.45, then the arterial pH is
    • 7.42
    • 7.48
    • 7.44
    • 7.49
    Question error

  59. Most common type of tracheo-oesophageal fistula
    • Type A
    • Type B
    • Type C
    • Type D

  60. In IgA nephropathy deposition of IgA occurs in
    • glomerular capillaries
    • glomerular mesangium
    • glomerular basement membrane
    • tubules

  61. Which one of the following abnormalities most likely to be seen in Pulmonary function test in a patient with unilateral diaphragmatic paralysis?
    • Decreased diffusing capacity of the lung for Carbon monoxide
    • Decreased functional residual capacity
    • Decreased residual volume
    • Decreased supine vital capacity

  62. Environmental enteric dysfunction has been associated with
    • Oedematous malnutrition
    • Tropical sprue
    • Mal rotation
    • Intucception

  63. In Genu Verum the bow legs beyond ____________ years is pathological.
    • beyond 1 year
    • beyond 2 years
    • beyond newborn period
    • beyond 6 months

  64. The genu valgus the intermalleolar distance for more than __________ cm is pathological.
    • 4 cm
    • 6 cm
    • 5 cm
    • 8 cm
    Question error

  65. The clinical definition of shock by WHO in resource limited setting is
    • cold extremities with capillary refill time more than 3 secs and weak and fast pulse
    • cold extremities with weak and fast pulse
    • capillary refill time more than 3 secs and weak and fast pulse
    • cold extremities with capillary refill time more than 3 secs

  66. Management of early treatment failure in malaria include all except
    • Look for diarrhoea and vomiting
    • Treat with second line drugs
    • Consider it as resistant malaria
    • Do a rapid diagnostic test to see for fresh infection

  67. The optimal mode of therapy now for EHPVO
    • mesentrico portal bypass
    • endoscopic variceal band ligation
    • endoscopic sclerotherapy
    • distal spleno-renal shunt

  68. Pulmonary capillary blood from which lung unit has the lowest PO2
    • V = 2 l/mt Q = 0.2 l/mt
    • V = 2 l/mt Q = 2 l/mt
    • V = 0.2 l/mt Q = 2 l/mt
    • V = 0 Q = 2 l/mt

  69. Fractional IPV is
    • 1/4th of a full dose
    • 1/5th of a full dose
    • 1/2 of the full dose
    • 1/3rd of the full dose

  70. Thrombocytopenia is an AEFI of which vaccine
    • Measles
    • BCG
    • DPT
    • Hepatitis B

  71. Isoniazid preventive therapy should be given to child in all situations except
    • For all HIV infected children who are tuberculin skin test positive
    • All TST positive children who are receiving immunosuppressive therapy
    • A child born to mother who was diagnosed to have TB in pregnancy
    • Close contacts of index cases with proved DR-TB

  72. In Di-Georges syndrome which of these is not included in catch-22 mnemonic
    • Cardiac abnormality
    • Hyperthyroidism
    • Hypocalcaemia
    • Abnormal facies

  73. Anakinra acts on which interleukin and blocks its activity
    • IL 3
    • IL 4
    • IL 2
    • IL 1

  74. Who recommended IV fluid for maintenance IV fluid all except?
    • RL with 5% dextrose
    • NS with 5% dextrose
    • 1/2 NS with 5% dextrose
    • RL

  75. Drug of choice for carbapenemase producing carbapenem resistant organisms
    • Meropenem
    • Colistin with Meropenem
    • Vancomycin
    • Linezolid

  76. Sign that remain useful for assessing dehydration status in children with severe acute malnutrition is
    • Loss of skin turgor
    • Eyes appear sunken
    • Child irritable
    • Eagerness to drink

  77. The upstream markers in hemodynamic monitoring in critically ill child include all except
    • Blood pressure
    • Heart rate
    • Central venous pressure
    • Urine output

  78. Which HLA marker has maximum strength of association with Type 1 diabetes?
    • DR 2
    • DR 3
    • DR 4
    • DQ 8
    Question error

  79. Within ADHD which of the following is not classified as a problem relating to hyperactivity-impulsivity?
    • Doesn't appear to listen when being told something or spoken to
    • Experience difficulties in playing quietly
    • Talks excessively
    • Rather than sitting still, squirms in seat and fidgets

  80. A simple screening test for B-cell defect is by the measurement of
    • IgA
    • IgG
    • IgE
    • IgM

  81. Who among the following person was appointed as the constitutional adviser to the Indian Constituent Assembly?
    • C. Rajagopalachari
    • G.V. Mavalankar
    • Benegal Narsing Rao
    • Balwantrai Mehta

  82. The Indian constitution borrowed the idea of 'single citizenship' from
    • Canada
    • Britain
    • France
    • Germany

  83. Which Article of the Indian constitution is related with the 'Abolition of untouchability'?
    • Article 17
    • Article 20
    • Article 12
    • Article 15

  84. What is the time limit to get the information under R.T.I. Act of 2005?
    • 7 days
    • 14 days
    • 45 days
    • 30 days

  85. When was the National Food Security Act passed?
    • 2013
    • 2007
    • 2009
    • 2012

  86. Who among the following started the system "A school along with every church" to make education available to all sects of people?
    • Herman Gundert
    • Edward Brennen
    • Rev. Meed
    • Rev. Fr Kuriakose-Elias Chavara

  87. The first General Secretary of S.N.D.P is
    • Sree Narayana Guru
    • Kumaranasan
    • N. Krishnan
    • C.V. Kunhiraman

  88. Who among the following person became the martyr in the Paliyam Sathyagraha of 1947-'48?
    • Velukkutty Arayan
    • A.G. Velayudhan
    • C. Kesavan
    • C.V. Kunhiraman

  89. Who was the leader of the Kayal Sammelanam of 1913, a meeting against the restriction for lower caste people in assembling any common place?
    • Pandit K.P. Karuppan
    • Sahodaran Ayyappan
    • Ayyankali
    • Dr. Palpu

  90. The channar agitation took place during the time of which Travancore king
    • Avittom Thirunal Balaramavarama I
    • Chithira Thirunal Balaramavarma II
    • Sreemoolam Thirunal Ramavarma
    • Uthram Thirunal Marthandavarma

  91. The founder of the Ezhava Mahasabha is
    • C. Kesavan
    • Nataraja Guru
    • Dr. Palpu
    • Bodhananda Swamikal

  92. Who was the volunteer captain of the Guruvayoor Satyagraha?
    • K. Kelappan
    • P. Krishnapillai
    • A.K. Gopalan
    • Mannath Padmanabhan

  93. Who is known as the Father of Malayalam journalism?
    • Swadeshabhimani Ramakrishna Pillai
    • Chengulathu Kunhirama Menon
    • Kandathil Varghese Mappilai
    • Vengayil Kunhiraman Nayanar

  94. Kerala Sangeetha Nataka Academy is located at
    • Kannur
    • Thiruvananthapuram
    • Ernakulam
    • Thrissur

  95. Who among the following person is known as the 'Jhansi Rani of Travancore'?
    • Accamma Cherian
    • Parvathi Nenmenimangalam
    • A.V. Kuttimalu Amma
    • Arya Pallam

  96. When is the National Science Day?
    • February 28
    • January 11
    • December 11
    • September 13

  97. Who wrote the poem 'Ente Gurunathan' in praising Mahatma Gandhi?
    • Ulloor S. Parameswara Iyer
    • Vallathol Narayana Menon
    • G. Sankara Kurup
    • Changampuzha Krishnapillai

  98. Who was the founder and publisher of the newspaper 'Swadeshabhimani'?
    • Kuttippuzha Krishnapillai
    • Swadeshabhimani Ramakrishnapillai
    • Vakkom Abdul Khader Moulavi
    • Kesari Balakrishnapillai

  99. Which of the following country will host the FIFA 2022 World Cup Football?
    • Sharjah
    • China
    • Qatar
    • Russia

  100. 'Madad' is the name given to the recent Flood Relief Operation by the
    • Navy
    • Airforce
    • Fishermen
    • Army

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2 comments

  1. Question 20. Madad is by Indian Navy not army

    ReplyDelete
  2. Qn.38 female gender is a risk factor for DDH. So the answer will be option B

    ReplyDelete